certswarrior

1Z0-161 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in 1Z0-161

Question: 1

 

You are connecting to a VM in your Oracle Java Cloud Service instance.

You are using a Secure Shell (SSH) on your local Linux machine.

The syntax for the command you type into the SSH client is:

 

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

 

1. The private key must correspond to the public key used when creating the service instance
2. The username is opc
3. The username is oracle
4. The public_ip must be the IP address of the WebLogic Server Administration Server VM
5. You must create a new key pair after you create the service instance and before you run the SSH client
6. The public_ip must be the IP address of the load balancer VM

 

Answer: B,D   

 

Question: 2

 

You want to add resources to an Oracle Java Cloud Service instance by scaling out the service instance.

Which statement correctly describes the resources that are added when you scale out a service instance?

 

1. A Managed Server is added on the service instance’s existing VM that is running the load balancer
2. A Managed Server is added on a new VM that is added to the service instance
3. A Managed Server is added on the existing VM that is running the Administration Server
4. A Managed Server is added on one of the existing VMs that is running a Managed Server

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 3

 

You are assisting on Oracle Java Cloud Service (JCS) customer who has reported slow response times in their production system. The customer has provided you with details of the number of concurrent users, the number and size of application requests, their data volumes, and their desired CPU utilization. You have only a limited time window during which you can change the production environment.

What is the optimal order of priority for your initial remedial actions?

 

1. 1. Use the WebLogic Diagnostic Framework to gather performance metrics2. Tune the WebLogic environment based on diagnostic results3. Monitor application performance in JCS Control Console and Fusion Middleware Control console
2. 1. Configure an identically sized JCS environment in an alternate data center2. Deploy the customer application to the new environment3. Implement the Oracle JCS tuning methodology to compare the results
3. 1. Use Oracle Fusion Middleware Control to configure a dashboard with custom metrics2. Use Java Mission Control to monitor JVM heap usage3. Take Java Threads dumps and search for locked threads
4. 1. Log in to the JCS virtual hosts and use Linux command line tools to monitor performance2. Change the Linux kernel parameters to improve performance3. Apply patches to the OS and the WebLogic Server
5. 1. Monitor system metrics such as utilization of disc/CPU, network data transfers, persistent store writers, and logging volume2. Locate or identify bottlenecks in the application, database, and WebLogic configuration3. Analyze the results, suggest changes that are likely to give the maximum benefit, and then prioritize configuration changes based on the analysis.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

You see on the patching page of the Oracle Java Cloud Service Console that new patches are available for you to apply.

For which one of these patch types might there be an available patch?

 

1. Java Development Kit (JDK)
2. Java Required File (JRF)
3. Operating System (OS)
4. Application Development Framework (ADF)

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/java-cloud/jscug/patching-oracle-java-cloud-service-instance.html#GUID-0BF293EB-603D-4391-A14E-5738EE384C50

 

Question: 5

 

When creating an Oracle Java Cloud Service instance by using the REST API, you pass the following JSON document with your request:

 

The service instance is provisioned successfully and the sample application is automatically deployed.

Which port is valid for accessing the sample application over the HTTPS protocol?

 

1. 8989
2. 80
3. 9001
4. 8001
5. 7002
6. 7001
7. 8002
8. 443

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/en/cloud/paas/java-cloud/jscug/enabling-http-access-oracle-java-cloud-service-instance.html#GUID-A33B34F9-C91A-429F-92E3-ED78BF03AC87

 

Question: 6

 

The on-premises Java EE application that you are planning to migrate to Oracle Java Cloud Service instance contains JMS (Java Messaging Service) resources:

hwjms_srv [a JMS server],

hwjms_mod [a JMS module], and

hwjms_agent [a Store and Forward agent]

What should you do the first time you migrate these JMS resources?

 

1. Pack the JMS resource files at the on-premises environment and unpack the files in the Oracle Java Cloud Service instance
2. Copy the WLS domain configuration folder from the on-premises environment to the Oracle Java Cloud Service instance
3. Create the JMS resources in the Oracle Java Cloud Service instance
4. Create a WLS cluster in the Oracle Java Cloud Service instance and add the Managed Servers from the on-premises WLS domain

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 7

 

You have been provisioned with a Java Cloud Service instance. The WebLogic Server domain in this instance has an Administration Server and two Managed Servers. The Managed Servers are configured into a cluster.

You plan to create an additional security realm to create and test custom security policies in the WebLogic Server domain of this instance.

How many security realms can be active in a WebLogic Server domain of the Java Cloud Service instance?

 

1. three: one for the Administration Server and one for each Managed Server
2. two: one for the Administration Server and one for the cluster
3. four one for the domain and one for each WebLogic Server
4. one: for the domain only

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  67

Test Number: 1Z0-161

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle Java Technology

Test Name:   Oracle Java Cloud Service

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-161/

Features of CertsWarrior 1Z0-499 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

An administrator wants to add an advanced statistic to a worksheet. How can the administrator make the statistic available?

 

1. Under Configuration > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.
2. Under Status > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.
3. No action is required. Advanced Statistics are enabled by default.
4. Under Configuration > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The Preferences view for enabling advanced Analytics, which will make many more statistics available.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37831_01/html/E52872/gocua.html

 

Question: 2

 

A storage administrator wants to give an operator the authority to update system software. Which privilege should be assigned to the operator?

 

1. Hardware
2. System
3. Update
4. Services
5. Users

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

TABLE, User Available Scopes

 

References:

Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance Administration Guide (June 2014), page 132

 

Question: 3

 

With which option would you configure a storage pool to meet the requirement of highest performance and high availability for random disk IOPS?

 

1. RAID-5
2. RAID-ZR
3. RAID-1
4. RAID-Z2
5. RAID-Z3

 

Answer: E   

 

Explanation:

Z3 is triple-disk failure protection within a multiple disk set, where stripe width var pool disk count.

Data is triply mirrored, yielding a very highly reliable and high-performing system (for example, storage for a critical database). This configuration is intended for situations in which maximum performance and availability are required. Compared with a two-way mirror, a three-way mirror adds additional IOPS per stored block and higher level protection against failures.

 

Question: 4

 

A storage administrator has completed initial configuration and is going to access the BUI. What should you do to access the BUI?

 

1. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.
2. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.
3. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:225.
4. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: http://ipaddress:215.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The ZFSSA Browser User Interface (BUI) is the graphical tool for administration of the appliance. The BUI provides an intuitive environment for administration tasks, visualizing concepts, and analyzing performance data. The BUI provides an uncluttered environment for visualizing system behavior and identifying performance issues with the appliance.

Direct your browser to the system using either the IP address or host name you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215 or https://hostname:215. The login screen appears.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37831_01/html/E52872/overview__browser_user_interface_bui.html

 

Question: 5

 

Which two features are available when ZFS Storage Appliances are clusters?

 

1. A peer appliance can provide service while repairs are being performed.
2. Load balancing among multiple heads is allowed.
3. Clients are provided with a unified file system namespace across multiple appliances.
4. Rolling upgrade of software is allowed.

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Explanation:

As an alternative to incurring hours or days of downtime while the head is repaired, clustering allows a peer appliance to provide service while repair or replacement is performed.

Clusters support rolling upgrade of software, which can reduce the business disruption associated with migrating to newer software.

 

Question: 6

 

What is the correct path to take a snapshot in a browser user interface (BUI)?

 

1. Shares > Projects
2. Configuration > Services
3. Maintenance > System
4. Status > Settings
5. Analytics > Datasets

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Taking a Snapshot (BUI)

Use the following procedure to take a manual snapshot of a filesystem, LUN, or project.

1. Go to the share or project you want to snapshot.

To take a snapshot of a filesystem, go to Shares > Shares.

To take a snapshot of a LUN, go to Shares > Shares and click LUNs.

To take a snapshot of a project, go to Shares > Projects.

Etc.

References:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E78901_01/html/E78912/gpris.html

 

Question: 7

 

A storage system has plenty of storage space available. Which storage profile should a storage administrator use when both high performance and high reliability are required?

 

1. double-parity RAID
2. striped
3. mirrored
4. single-parity RAID, narrow stripes

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

RAID in which each stripe contains two parity disks. As with triple mirroring, this yields high availability, as data remains available with the failure of any two disks. Double parity RAID is a higher capacity option than the mirroring options and is intended either for high-throughput sequential-access workloads (such as backup) or for storing large amounts of data with low random-read component.

Note: Triple mirrored

Data is triply mirrored, yielding a very highly reliable and high-performing system (for example, storage for a critical database). This configuration is intended for situations in which maximum performance and availability are required. Compared with a two-way mirror, a three-way mirror adds additional IOPS per stored block and higher level protection against failures.

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  70

Test Number: 1Z0-499

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle Systems

Test Name:   Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance 2017 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-499/        

Instant Success 1Z0-960 Exam with Valid 1Z0-960 Questions Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

You want to be notified of anomalies in certain account balances in real time. What is the rnost efficient

way to do this?

 

1. Perform an account analysis online.
2. Open a Smart View file saved on your desktop.
3. Create an Account Group using Account Monitor.
4. Use Account Inspector.

 

Answer:  C   

 

Question: 2

 

You are defining an income statement report. You want to allow viewers of the report to be able to drill

down from report balances to the underlying transactions. What do you need to enable?

 

1. Drill Through in Grid Properties
2. Report Functions
3. Nothing. All report balances are drillable in all FR Studio reports.
4. Allow Expansion

 

Answer:  A   

 

Question: 3

 

Your customer operates three shared services that perform accounting functions across 50 countries.

What feature allows them to share setup data, such as Payment Terms, across Business Units?

 

1. Reference Data Sets
2. Business Units functions
3. None. Setup data is partitioned by Business Unit and must be defined separately per Business Unit.
4. Data Access Sets

 

Answer:  A   

 

Question: 4

 

You entered a journal and the client is asking for the following information:

• The current account balance
• What the future account balance will be if the Journal is approved and posted

How will you get this information?

 

1. View the Projected Balance region in the Create Journals page.
2. Run a Trial Balance before and after posting.
3. Use Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) to query General Ledger balances
4. Query the account balance online.

 

Answer:  A   

 

Question: 5

 

While creating a Journal Entry Rule Set, you are not able to use an Account Rule recently created.

Which two options explain that?

 

1. The Account Rule is defined with a different chart of accounts from the Journal Entry Rule Set.
2. The Account Rule's chartof accounts have no account values assigned
3. The Account Rule's conditions are not defined.
4. The Account Rule is using sources assigned to different event classes from that of the associated

Journal Entry Rule Set.

 

Answer:  A,D   

 

Question: 6

 

You need to define a chart of accounts that includes an intercompany segment. Your customer plans to

use segment value security rules for the Company segment.

What does Oracle consider as best practice to define this chart or accounts?

 

1. Share the same value set for the company and intercompany segments to reduce chart of accounts

maintenance.

1. Use two different value sets for the company and intercompany segment because segment value

security rules are at the value set level.

1. Define the company segment only and qualify it as both the primary balancing segment

andintercompany segment.

1. Define two different charts of accounts.

 

Answer:  B   

 

Question: 7

 

You want to process multiple allocations at the same time. What feature do you use?

 

1. RuleSets
2. Point of View (POV)
3. Formulas
4. General Ledger Journal entries

 

Answer:  A   

 

Question: 8

 

Your customer is having issues transferring intercompany transactions to General Ledger..

Identify three reasons for this.

 

1. The intercompany transaction is not approved.
2. The corresponding Payables and Receivables invoice have not been generated.
3. If they are different, then the exchange rate is missing between the intercompany and ledger

currency.

1. The intercompany period is closed.
2. Both the intercompany and general ledger periods are open.

 

Answer:  A,C,D   

 

Question: 9

 

You want to enter budget data in Fusion General Ledger. Which method is not supported?

 

1. Smart View
2. Application Development Framework Desktop Integration (ADFdi)
3. File-based Data Import
4. Entering budget Journals

 

Answer:  D   

 

Question: 10

 

You created your first Implementation Project and assigned the Application Implementation Consultant

role to your user. However, you are unable to access Oracle Identity Management (OIM). This issue was

caused because you did not assign the_____.

 

1. Line Manager role to your user
2. Application Implementation Manager role to your user
3. IT Security Manager role to your user
4. Superuser role to your user

 

Answer:  C   

 

Question: 11

 

You transact in 50 different currencies and you need to define a high volume of revaluation definitions.

Which two methods are Oracle recommended best practices for streamlining this process?

 

1. Define separate revaluation definitions for each class of accounts, currency, and different rate types.
2. Use hierarchies and parent values in your revaluation definition.
3. Share revaluation definitions across ledgers that share the same chart of accounts.
4. Define one revaluation definition for all accounts (assuming all ledgers share the same chart of

accounts) and simply change the parameters at run time.

 

Answer:  B,C   

 

Question: 12

 

You need to distribute departmental expense reports to l00 department managers in your organization.

The report format is the same, but the department values differ.

What in the most efficient way to achieve this?

 

1. Set the Department segment as a User Point of View (POV) and submit a report batch and schedule it:

to run for every department. Send the different batch outputs as PDF attachments via email to different

users.

1. Create a single report for all departments. When department managers log in to Financial Reporting

Center, they will only be able to view their department's data based on Segment Value Security Rules.

1. Set up Bursting Options for your batch to prepare multiple versions of a report from a single process.
2. When defining the report, make the Department Segment a prompt and when users view the report,

they can change the prompt to their department.

 

Answer:  A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  107

Test Number: 1Z0-960

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle Financials Cloud: General Ledger 2017 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-960/

Latest 1Z0-134 Dumps - Real Exam 1Z0-134 Questions 2018

Question: 1

 

I am configuring the security policy for my JMS module. I am specifying some security conditions for the module.

Which two security conditions are valid in this context? (Choose two.)

 

1. The JMS module can be accessed only between 1 pm and 6 pm.
2. The JMS module should throw a custom security exception on invalid access.
3. The JMS module can process only 50 messages at a time.
4. The JMS module can be accessed only by users belonging to the Operators group.
5. The JMS module can be accessed in a receive-only mode.

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Explanation:

There are two security conditions:

* time-constrained

* By Group or User

 

Question: 2

 

Review the digital certificate below.

 

Based on what the certificate contains, which statement is true? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. It is a self-signed digital certificate with no certification chain.
2. It is an authentic digital certificate with a valid certification chain.
3. It is a digital certificate for a private key with a valid certification chain.
4. It is an authentic root CA certificate with a valid certification chain.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

You want to create a WebLogic Server (WLS) Work Manager with a Response Time Request Class of one second. You start to create the following WLST script:

 

Which two can replace the missing sequence to finish this script? (Choose two.)

 

1. cmo.addTarget(getMBean('/Servers/ManagedServer'))cd('edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager')cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime'))
2. managedServer=getMBean('/Servers/ManagedServer')cmo.addTarget(managedServer)cmo.setWorkManaqer(getMBean('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorManagers/MyWorkManager'))
3. cd('edit:/Servers/ManagedServer')cmo.addTarget(getMBean('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime'))cmo.addTarget (getMBean('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager'))
4. managedServer=getMBean('/Servers/ManagedServer')cmo.addTarget(managedServer)cd('edit:/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager')cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass(getMBean('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime'))
5. cmo.addTarqet('/Servers/ManagedServer')cd('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/WorkManagers/MyWorkManager')cmo.setResponseTimeRequestClass('/SelfTuning/wls_domain/ResponseTimeRequestClasses/MyResponseTime')

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Question: 4

 

You are creating and configuring a production WebLogic Server (WLS) domain that is highly available. Which three WebLogic Server features allow you to best accomplish this requirement? (Choose three.)

 

1. Multiple standalone managed servers
2. Load Balancer
3. Cluster
4. DNS caching
5. Whole-server migration
6. Machine migration

 

Answer: B,C,E   

 

Explanation:

B Load balancing is the even distribution of jobs and associated communications across the computing and networking resources in your environment.

C: In a WebLogic Server cluster, application processing can continue when a server instance fails.

E: Migration in WebLogic Server is the process of moving a clustered WebLogic Server instance or a component running on a clustered instance elsewhere if failure occurs. This is called Whole-server migration.

 

Question: 5

 

You are troubleshooting an issue with a WLS data source. However, your attempt to execute a manual test on the connection pool fails when you invoke the testPool() method on the corresponding JDBCDataSourceRuntimeMBean.

Which configuration condition would contribute to the failure of executing the test? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. The TestTableName property is either not set or is set to an invalid SQL statement.
2. The TestFrequencySeconds property is set to a value greater than 0.
3. The TestReservedConnections property is enabled.
4. The ManualTestEnabled property is set to false.
5. The ConnectionReserveTimeoutSeconds property is set to a value other than -1.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

testPool tests the connection pool in the data source by reserving and releasing a connection from it.

TestTableName is the name of the database table to use when testing physical database connections. This name is required when you specify a Test Frequency and enable Test Reserved Connections, Test Created Connections, and Test Released Connections.

 

Question: 6

  

My JMS file store size has grown very large and is using up a significant chunk of the disk. I need to reduce the file size during the maintenance window without impacting any relevant information.

Which utility enables me to do this? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. weblogic.store.Compacter
2. weblogic.store.Admin
3. weblogic.store.Reducer
4. weblogic.file.FileUtil

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

To open the persistent store administration utility from a Java command line, type the following:

> java weblogic.store.Admin

Here is an example of using the compact command to compact the space occupied by a file store in the mystores directory.

> storeadmin->compact -dir c:\mystores -tempdir c:\tmp

 

Question: 7

 

Your WebLogic Server (WLS) environment consists of multiple domains.

Which is a true statement about WLS domains? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Multiple domains can use the same or separate WLS installation while running on the same machine.
2. Domains require a minimum of one managed server.
3. Multiple domains require separate WLS installations while running on the same machine.
4. Multiple domains require individual Node Managers while running on the same machine.
5. Multiple domains can share the same administration server.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

You can use a single Oracle WebLogic Server installation to create and run multiple domains, or you can use multiple installations to run a single domain.

 

Question: 8

 

You are asked to configure Node Manager for your production environment. You are considering whether to use the Java version or the script-based version of Node Manager.

Which statement correctly describes the difference between the two versions?

 

1. If you are installing WebLogic Server on a Windows system, you must use the Java version of Node Manager.
2. The script-based version of Node Manager can be used in conjunction with inetd on supported UNIX systems.
3. The script-based version of Node Manager requires a larger footprint than the Java version.
4. When Node Manager is used for consensus leasing, you may see faster performance with the script-based version.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Java-based Node Manager runs within a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) process. It is recommended that you run it as a Windows service on Windows platforms and as an operating system service on UNIX platforms.

For UNIX and Linux systems, WebLogic Server provides a script-based version of Node Manager.

 

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  80

Test Number: 1Z0-134

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle WebLogic System Administrator

Test Name:   Oracle WebLogic Server 12c: Advanced Administrator II

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1Z0-134/

Why Should You Purchase Citrix 1Y0-203 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator uses Citrix Universal Print Server to map all printers. The administrator plans to implement TEKLYNX label printers in the warehouse but first needs to test the driver.

Which tool should the administrator use to test the driver?

 

1. Windows Performance Kit
2. Citrix UPS Print Driver Certification Tool
3. StressPrinters
4. Print Detective

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

A Citrix Administrator needs to perform Power Management on machines.

Which type of machine supports this feature within a XenDesktop infrastructure?

 

1. Virtual Desktop OS Machines
2. Remote PC Machines
3. Virtual Server OS Machines
4. Physical Server OS Machines

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

A Citrix Administrator needs to add a VMware ESXi host as a hosting unit in the XenDesktop.

Which three permissions are required by User account to add the VMware ESXi host? (Choose three.)

 

1. System.Read
2. DataStore.AllocateSpace
3. DataStore.FileManagement
4. System.View
5. System.Anonymous
6. DataStore.Browse

 

Answer: A,B,E   

 

Question: 4

 

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy a new version of Receiver to 10 users who are onsite as visitors and use personal BYOD laptops that run an older version of Receiver. The users only require a base installation of Receiver with NO customizations; however, they will need to have the ability to print and save files locally from within their sessions.

The users will access XenDesktop resources through StoreFront.

Which two deployment options can the administrator choose for these users? (Choose two.)

 

1. Have users run HTML5 Receiver through web browser.
2. Use an Enterprise software deployment of Receiver.
3. Deploy Receiver through StoreFront browser.
4. Have users perform a manual installation of Native Receiver.

 

Answer: A,C   

 

Question: 5

 

Which profile type will save changes made by users to their Microsoft Office applications in a pooled random virtualized environment?

 

1. Temporary
2. Mandatory
3. Local
4. Roaming

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 6

 

A Citrix Administrator is preparing to deploy 500 Windows 10 Virtual Desktops by using Machine Creation Services (MCS).

How much storage space, at a minimum, needs to be allocated to the Identity Disks in this environment?

 

1. 32 Gb
2. 8 Gb
3. 16 Gb
4. 4 Gb

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 7

 

Scenario: A Lead Citrix Administrator for a large company hired a new administrator for the team to help manage the XenDesktop infrastructure. The new administrator will need to manage user sessions and power-manage machines within the Delivery but should NOT be able to create any new objects.

Which role should the lead administrator create for the new administrator?

 

1. Help Desk Administrator
2. Full Administrator
3. Machine Catalog Administrator
4. Host Administrator

 

Answer: A   

Test Information:

Total Questions:  64

Test Number: 1Y0-203

Vendor Name: Citrix                      

Cert Name:  Citrix Certified Associate Virtualization

Test Name:   Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Administration

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com/

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1y0-203/                          

Why Should You Purchase Cisco 300-320 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

What is the maximum number of routers that each OSPF area (including the backbone) should contain?

 

1. 30
2. 10
3. 50
4. 60

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 2

What is the maximum number of neighbors that a router should have in an OSPF area?

 

1. 5
2. 30
3. 50
4. 60

Answer: D

 

Question: 3

Which technology allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist on the same router simultaneously?

 

1. VRF
2. Cisco virtual router
3. Instanced virtuer router
4. IS-IS

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 4

Which first-hop redundancy protocol that was designed by Cisco allows packet load sharing among groups of redundant routers?

 

1. GLBP
2. HSRP
3. VRRP
4. VSS

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 5

Which routing protocol provides the fastest convergence and greatest flexibility within a campus environment?

 

1. OSPF
2. IS-IS
3. BGP
4. EIGRP

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 6

A network manager wants to securely connect a new remote site to the existing headquarters site using a VPN technology that meets security requirements. Which VPN technology should be used?

 

1. GRE
2. IPsec
3. remote-access VPN
4. L2TP VPN

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 7

Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS?

1. Full mesh
2. Partial mesh
3. Star
4. Bus
5. Ring

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 8

Which protocol should be run on the LAN side of two edge routers (that are terminating primary and backup WAN circuits) to provide quick failover in case of primary WAN circuit failure?

 

1. VTP
2. STP
3. VRRP
4. RIP

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 9

Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario ?

 

1. VRRP
2. BGP
3. IPsec
4. SSL

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 10

Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?

1. ATM
2. ISP MPLS VPN
3. VTI
4. VPLS

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 11

Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into "legal" public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

 

1. PAT
2. NAT
3. VLAN
4. GARP
5. PPP

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 12

Which technology fulfills these requirements?

 

Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.

 

This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.

 

1. PPP
2. Frame Relay
3. ATM
4. MPLS
5. X.25

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 13

Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of management?

 

1. Cisco Nexus 2000
2. Cisco Nexus 5000
3. Cisco Nexus 7000
4. Cisco Nexus 9000

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 14

Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?

 

1. The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
2. All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
3. Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
4. The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 15

A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?

 

1. ISSU
2. VSS
3. vPC
4. MEC

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 16

Which virtualization technology allows for HSRP protocol to be used in the active/active configuration where both HSRP Layer 3 devices can forward network traffic?

 

1. OTV
2. VSS
3. vPC
4. VDC

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 17

Which technology extends Layer 2 LANs over any network that supports IP?

 

1. OTV
2. VSS
3. vPC
4. VLAN

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 18

What is the purpose of an OTV edge device?

 

1. connect to other data centers
2. connect to the access layer
3. connect to the end users
4. connect to mobile devices

 

Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/whitepaper/DCI3_OTV_Intro/DCI_1.html

"Edge Device

The edge device (Figure 1-1) performs OTV functions: it receives the Layer 2 traffic for all VLANs that need to be extended to remote locations and dynamically encapsulates the Ethernet frames into IP packets that are then sent across the transport infrastructure.

[...]

Finally, the OTV edge device can be positioned in different parts of the data center. "

 

Question: 19

Which architecture provides a way to deliver end-to-end QoS as required by real-time voice and video business

applications?

 

1. IntServ
2. DiffServ
3. LLQ
4. ToS
5. DSCP

 

Answer: A

DiffServ is known as "Hop-by-Hop" and not "End-to-End"

 

Question: 20

CoS is applied for Layer 2 markings in an Ethernet environment. Which protocol must be configured on the Layer 2 switch port for CoS to work?

 

1. MPLS
2. IEEE 802.1W
3. IEEE 802.1Q
4. IEEE 802.1S

 

Answer: C

Test Information:

Total Questions:  483

Test Number: 300-320

Vendor Name: Cisco                      

Cert Name:  CCDP

Test Name:   Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/300-320/        

Features of CertsWarrior 300-115 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

What is the maximum number of switches that can be stacked using Cisco StackWise?

 

1. 4
2. 5
3. 8
4. 9
5. 10
6. 13

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 2

 

A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack?

 

1. No configuration must be added.
2. stack ID
3. IP address
4. VLAN information
5. VTP information

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 3

 

What percentage of bandwidth is reduced when a stack cable is broken?

 

1. 0
2. 25
3. 50
4. 75
5. 100

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 4

 

Which set of configurations will result in all ports on both switches successfully bundling into an EtherChannel?

 

1. switch1

channel-group 1 mode active

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

1. switch1

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switch2

channel-group 1 mode passive

1. switch1

channel-group 1 mode on

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

1. switch1

channel-group 1 mode desirable

switch2

channel-group 1 mode auto

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 5

 

How can the traffic that is mirrored out the GigabitEthernet0/48 port be limited to only traffic that is received or transmitted in VLAN 10 on the GigabitEthernet0/1 port?

 

1. Change the configuration for GigabitEthernet0/48 so that it is a member of VLAN 10.
2. Add an access list to GigabitEthernet0/48 to filter out traffic that is not in VLAN 10.
3. Apply the monitor session filter globally to allow only traffic from VLAN 10.
4. Change the monitor session source to VLAN 10 instead of the physical interface.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 6

 

A network engineer wants to analyze all incoming and outgoing packets for an interface that is connected to an access switch. Which three items must be configured to mirror traffic to a packet sniffer that is connected to the distribution switch? (Choose three.)

 

1. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
2. A remote SPAN VLAN on the distribution and access layer switch
3. A monitor session on the access switch with a physical interface source and the remote SPAN VLAN as the destination
4. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a remote SPAN VLAN as the source and physical interface as the destination
5. A monitor session on the access switch with a remote SPAN VLAN source and the physical interface as the destination
6. A monitor session on the distribution switch with a physical interface as the source and a physical interface as the destination

 

Answer: B, C, D

 

Question: 7

 

After an EtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state. Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable. Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?

 

1. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
2. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
3. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
4. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 8

 

An EtherChannel bundle has been established between a Cisco switch and a corporate web server. The network administrator noticed that only one of the EtherChannel links is being utilized to reach the web server. What should be done on the Cisco switch to allow for better EtherChannel utilization to the corporate web server?

 

1. Enable Cisco Express Forwarding to allow for more effective traffic sharing over the EtherChannel bundle.
2. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on destination IP addresses.
3. Disable spanning tree on all interfaces that are participating in the EtherChannel bundle.
4. Use link-state tracking to allow for improved load balancing of traffic upon link failure to the server.
5. Adjust the EtherChannel load-balancing method based on source IP addresses.

 

Answer: E

 

Question: 9

 

Interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk interface that allows all VLANs. This command is configured globally:

 monitor session 2 filter vlan 1 - 8, 39, 52

 What is the result of the implemented command?

 

1. All VLAN traffic is sent to the SPAN destination interface.
2. Traffic from VLAN 4 is not sent to the SPAN destination interface.
3. Filtering a trunked SPAN port effectively disables SPAN operations for all VLANs.
4. The trunk's native VLAN must be changed to something other than VLAN 1.
5. Traffic from VLANs 1 to 8, 39, and 52 is replicated to the SPAN destination port.

 

Answer: E

 

Question: 10

 

A network engineer notices inconsistent Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbors according to the diagram that is provided. The engineer notices only a single neighbor that uses Cisco Discovery Protocol, but it has several routing neighbor relationships. What would cause the output to show only the single neighbor?

 

1. The routers are connected via a Layer 2 switch.
2. IP routing is disabled on neighboring devices.
3. Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled locally.
4. Cisco Discovery Protocol advertisements are inconsistent between the local and remote devices.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 11

 

After the implementation of several different types of switches from different vendors, a network engineer notices that directly connected devices that use Cisco Discovery Protocol are not visible. Which vendor-neutral protocol could be used to resolve this issue?

 

1. Local Area Mobility
2. Link Layer Discovery Protocol
3. NetFlow
4. Directed Response Protocol

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 12

 

Several new switches have been added to the existing network as VTP clients. All of the new switches have been configured with the same VTP domain, password, and version. However, VLANs are not passing from the VTP server (existing network) to the VTP clients. What must be done to fix this?

 

1. Remove the VTP domain name from all switches with "null" and then replace it with the new domain name.
2. Configure a different native VLAN on all new switches that are configured as VTP clients.
3. Provision one of the new switches to be the VTP server and duplicate information from the existing network.
4. Ensure that all switch interconnects are configured as trunks to allow VTP information to be transferred.

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 13

 

After implementing VTP, the extended VLANs are not being propagated to other VTP switches. What should be configured for extended VLANs?

 

1. VTP does not support extended VLANs and should be manually added to all switches.
2. Enable VTP version 3, which supports extended VLAN propagation.
3. VTP authentication is required when using extended VLANs because of their ability to cause network instability.
4. Ensure that all switches run the same Cisco IOS version. Extended VLANs will not propagate to different IOS versions when extended VLANs are in use.

 

Answer: B

 

Question: 14

 

Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch C receives VLAN information from the VTP server Switch A, but Switch B does not receive any VLAN information. What is the most probable cause of this behavior?

 

1. Switch B is configured in transparent mode.
2. Switch B is configured with an access port to Switch A, while Switch C is configured with a trunk port to Switch B.
3. The VTP revision number of the Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
4. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 15

 

Switch A, B, and C are trunked together and have been properly configured for VTP. Switch B has all VLANs, but Switch C is not receiving traffic from certain VLANs. What would cause this issue?

 

1. A VTP authentication mismatch occurred between Switch A and Switch B.
2. The VTP revision number of Switch B is higher than that of Switch A.
3. VTP pruning is configured globally on all switches and it removed VLANs from the trunk interface that is connected to Switch C.
4. The trunk between Switch A and Switch B is misconfigured.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 16

 

After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once "blocking" are now defined as "alternate" and "backup." What is the reason for this change?

 

1. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
2. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
3. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
4. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 17

 

An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast.  After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?

 

1. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
2. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
3. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
4. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 18

Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?

 

1. access lists
2. DTP in nonegotiate
3. VTP pruning
4. PBR

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 19

 

What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address-table?

 

1. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
2. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
3. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
4. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
5. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

 

Answer: A

 

Question: 20

 

While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?

 

1. macros
2. errdisable autorecovery
3. IP Event Dampening
4. command aliases
5. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

 

Answer: B

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  364

Test Number: 300-115

Vendor Name: Cisco                      

Cert Name:  Cisco Routing and Switching Field Specialist

Test Name:   Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/300-115/

Why Should You Purchase Microsoft 98-375 Exam product 2018

Case Study: 2

Scenario 1

Background

Southbridge Video

Southbridge Video rents and sells video games, movies, and other multimedia content. The company is currently expanding its operations. Southbridge video is developing a Windows Store news reader and social media app. Users will be able to view and interact with news stories that are related to the video game, entertainment, and related industries. Southbridge Video employees will also use the app to manage sales leads, order fulfillment, and customer-service related activities.

Business Requirements

The app has the following requirements.

Email

Users must be able to email news items to their contacts.

Navigation

Easy navigation access must be available to move to the next and previous pages.

Users searching for specific news items must be able to navigate directly to an item from the search results pane.

News items

When a user selects a news item on newsPage.html, the news item should be displayed in the newsltem.html page.

The app must periodically retrieve new news items on the newsPage.html page.

The app must allow the user to save annotated news.

The app must display a short title for each news item.

Search capabilities

The app must allow users to search within available news items to locate articles of interest.

The app must provide search suggestions for users.

Authentication

Employees must be able to view the sales leads, order fulfillment, and customer-service related pages.

Authenticated users must be able to save news items to read at a later time.

Authenticated users must be able to add and save handwritten notes to the news items.

The app must allow users to choose whether their credentials will be saved after they first log in. User credentials must be saved by default.

Segment

Technical Requirements

Email

When a user clicks the To button to email news items, only contacts that have email addresses should be displayed.

When multiple contacts are selected, the email addresses must be displayed in the To text box as a semi-colon-delimited string.

 

Question: 1

 

You need to configure the CredentialPicker object to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line GC04?

 

1. options.callerSavesCredential = false;
2. options.CredentialSaveOption.unselected;
3. options.CredentialSaveOption.selected;
4. options.callerSavesCredential = true;
5. options.CredentialSaveOption.hidden;

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 2

 

You need to ensure that the navigation requirements for displaying news items are met. Which code segment should you insert at line NP04?

 

1. nav.navigate("/html/newsPage.html");
2. nav.navigate ("/html/newsItem.html", { item: item });
3. nav.forward ("/html/newsItem.html");
4. nav.forward("/html/newsPage.html", { item: item });

 

Answer: B   

 

 

Question: 3

 

You need to ensure that the requirements for capturing user input on the newsltem.html page are met. Which code segments should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)

 

1. inkManager.mode = Windows.UI.Input.Inking.InkManipuIationMode.selecting;
2. inkManager.mode = Windows.UI.Input.Inking.InkRecognitionTarget.selected;
3. inkManager.mode = Windows.UI.Input.Inking.InkManipuIationMode.inking;
4. mkMar.ager.mode = Windows.UI.Input.Inking.InkRecognitionTarget.all;

 

Answer: AB

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  132

Test Number: 98-375

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  MTA

Test Name:   HTML5 Application Development Fundamentals

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/98-375/          

24/7 Customer Support Service of 98-369 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

How does Microsoft inform subscribers of maintenance events that could temporarily disrupt Microsoft Office 365 services?

 

1. by emailing the Global Admin account for the subscription
2. by updating the Message Center Dashboard
3. by updating the Service Health Dashboard
4. by updating the Online Service Level Agreement

 

Answer: C       

 

Explanation:

When a service impacting event occurs, Microsoft Customer Service and Support recognizes that timely and accurate communications are critical for customer organizations and partners. Microsoft notifies Office 365 subscribers by updating the Service Health Dashboard that is available on the Office 365 portal.

Reference:

http://blogs.msmvps.com/bradley/2012/09/13/i-found-an-rss-feed-for-office-365-service-health-notifications/

 

 

 

Question: 2

What is the minimum version of Internet Explorer needed to ensure that Microsoft Office 365 web-based applications have full functionality?

 

1. Internet Explorer 8
2. Internet Explorer 9
3. Internet Explorer 10
4. Internet Explorer 11

 

Answer: C       

Explanation:

Office 365 is designed to work with the current or immediately previous version of Internet Explorer. Office 365 does not offer code fixes to resolve problems you encounter when using the service with Internet Explorer 9. You should expect the quality of the user experience to diminish over time, and that many new Office 365 experiences might not work at all.

Reference: Office 365 system requirements

https://support.office.com/en-us/article/Office-365-system-requirements-719254C0-2671-4648-9C84-C6A3D4F3BE45

 

Question: 3

You are an IT intern for a retail company.

The staff is not receiving inbound messages, and clients are not receiving the staff’s outbound messages.

Which two features of Microsoft Exchange Online should you use to diagnose the issue? Choose two.

 

1. Outlook Web App (OWA) delivery reports
2. Exchange Online Protection
3. Endpoint Protection
4. Message Trace tool

 

Answer: AD       

Explanation:

D: Office 365 Small Business admins can troubleshoot email delivery problems by using the Exchange Online message trace tool. The tool helps admins track specific messages sent in the past 90 days.

A: Office 365 users and admins can also use delivery reports in Outlook Web App to check the delivery status of messages they’ve sent or received. If you sent a message to five people, for example, you can check the status of the delivery of that message to each person.

Go to Delivery reports settings:

1. Sign in to Outlook Web App.
2. At the top of the page, select Outlook (or Mail). Or, select the App launcher , and then select Outlook.
3. At the top of the page, select Settings > Options.
4. In Options, select Organize email > Delivery reports. Or, in Options, under MAIL > Layout, select Delivery reports.

Reference: Troubleshoot email delivery using the Exchange Online message trace tool

https://support.office.com/en-au/article/Troubleshoot-email-delivery-using-the-Exchange-Online-message-trace-tool-e7758b99-1896-41db-bf39-51e2dba21de6

Reference: https://support.office.com/en-sg/article/Delivery-reports-6556a1d7-e988-4428-88de-48a4ae58555f

 

Question: 4

You are the Microsoft Lync administrator for your company.

An employee needs to use Lync Online to call two external Skype contacts simultaneously. The employee can only call one contact at a time.

What should you advise the employee to do?

 

1. Turn on external communication
2. Check the formatting of her user name
3. Invite contacts to a Lync Meeting
4. Verify that the Skype users are signed in to a Microsoft Account

 

Answer: D       

Explanation:

Skype users must be signed in with their Microsoft account (formerly Windows Live ID).

Reference: Let Lync Online users communicate outside your organization [Small Business]

https://support.office.com/en-ca/article/Let-Lync-Online-users-communicate-outside-your-organization-Small-Business-7f488f09-f004-4db5-aec5-01c262aa3d34?ui=en-US&rs=en-CA&ad=CA

 

Question: 5

You are the Microsoft Lync Online administrator for your company. A customer has reported an issue when signing in to the company’s Lync Online Service. When the customer attempts to sign in, the following error message is returned:

“The server is temporarily unavailable”.

The server is up, and other customers are connected to it.

What is likely causing the connection issue?

 

1. The user has the incorrect Lync version
2. The user has entered the wrong user name
3. DNS is configured incorrectly
4. The user does not have a Lync license

 

Answer: D       

Explanation:

This issue occurs for one of the following reasons:

Cause 1: You are not entitled for Lync Online.

Cause 2: You lack connectivity to the Lync Online service.

Cause 3: You are running a 64-bit Windows operating system.

Reference: "Cannot sign in because the server is temporarily unavailable" error when you try to sign in to Lync Online in Office 365 dedicated

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/2619522

 

Question: 6

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

A user management admin in Microsoft Office 365 Business Premium can reset passwords for users and service admins.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.

 

1. No change is needed
2. billing
3. global
4. password

 

Answer: D       

Explanation:

User management admin can reset password, but can’t reset passwords for billing, global, and service admins.

Reference: Assigning admin roles

https://support.office.com/en-SG/article/Assigning-admin-roles-eac4d046-1afd-4f1a-85fc-8219c79e1504

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  39

Test Number: 98-369

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  MTA

Test Name:   Cloud Fundamentals

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/98-369/

Features of CertsWarrior 98-368 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

In order to install Microsoft Intune client software on a computer, you need to be a member of that computer’s "Administrators" group.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.

 

1. No change is needed
2. Remote Management users
3. Power users
4. Remote Desktop users

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The account that installs the Intune client software must have local administrator permissions to that computer.

Reference: Requirements for Microsoft Intune

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646950.aspx

 

Question: 2

 

Your company is deploying a new application on employee’s personal Windows RT devices. The devices are registered with Microsoft Intune.

You need to publish the new application to Microsoft Intune cloud storage so that the employees can install the published application.

What are requirements of the published installation files?

 

1. In order to publish the files, Internet speed must be at least 50 kbps
2. The cumulative total file size for the published applications must be smaller than 2 GB
3. In order to upload the software, the files must be a .zip format
4. As many files as necessary may be uploaded, but no single file may be larger than 2 GB

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

Before you publish computer apps to Microsoft Intune cloud storage make sure no single file size is larger than 2 GB.

Reference: Deploy apps to computers in Microsoft Intune

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn646961.aspx

 

Question: 3

 

Your company needs a service that eliminates a single point of failure on any provisioned service.

Which feature can Microsoft Azure offer to lower the probability of a failure that disrupts business operations?

 

1. HDInsight
2. scalability
3. high availability
4. backup

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

A highly available cloud application implements strategies to absorb the outage of the dependencies like the managed services offered by the cloud platform. Despite possible failures of the cloud platform’s capabilities, this approach permits the application to continue to exhibit the expected functional and non-functional systemic characteristics.

Incorrect answers:

Not A: Azure HDInsight deploys and provisions Apache Hadoop clusters in the cloud, providing a software framework designed to manage, analyze, and report on big data with high reliability and availability.

Reference: Disaster Recovery and High Availability for Azure Applications

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn251004.aspx

 

Question: 4

 

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

"Redundant" Microsoft Azure applications are able to meet increased demand with consistent results in acceptable time window.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.

 

1. No change is needed
2. Highly Available
3. Fault Tolerant
4. Scalable

 

Answer: D    

 

Explanation:

Scalable applications are able to meet increased demand with consistent results in acceptable time windows.

When a system is scalable, it scales horizontally or vertically to manage increases in load while maintaining consistent performance. In basic terms, horizontal scaling adds more machines of the same size (processor, memory, bandwidth) while vertical scaling increases the size of the existing machines.

Reference: Disaster Recovery and High Availability for Azure Applications

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn251004.aspx

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  37

Test Number: 98-368

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  MTA

Test Name:   Mobility and Devices Fundamentals

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/98-368/

Free Demo Offer of Microsoft 98-367 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

Windows Firewall is a built-in. host-based, stateless firewall.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

 

1. Stateful

B.Network layer

C.Packet filter

D.No change is needed

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

Bridging is a process of sending packets from source to destination on OSI layer 3.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

 

1. Routing

B.Switching

C.Repeating

D.No change is needed.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

The primary purpose of Network Access Protection (NAP) is to prevent:

 

1. Loss of data from client computers on a network.

B.Non-compliant systems from connecting to a network.

C.Users on a network from installing software.

D.Unauthorized users from accessing a network.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 4

 

You want to make your computer resistant to online hackers and malicious software.

What should you do?

 

1. Configure a forward proxy.

B.Install anti-virus software.

C.Enable spam filtering.

D.Turn on Windows Firewall.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

 

Your company requires that users type a series of characters to access the wireless network.

The series of characters must meet the following requirements:

Contains more than 15 characters

Contains at least one letter

Contains at least one number

Contains at least one symbol

Which security technology meets these requirements?

 

1. WEP

B.WPA2 PSK

C.WPA2 Enterprise

D.MAC filtering

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation: Pre-shared key mode (PSK, also known as Personal mode) is designed for home and small office networks that don't require the complexity of an 802.1X authentication server.[9] Each wireless network device encrypts the network traffic using a 256 bit key. This key may be entered either as a string of 64 hexadecimal digits, or as a passphrase of 8 to 63 printable ASCII characters

 

Question: 6

 

Many Internet sites that you visit require a user name and password.

How should you secure these passwords?

 

1. Save them to a text file

B.Enable session caching

C.Configure the browser to save passwords

D.Save them to an encrypted file

E.Reuse the same password

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 7

 

Physically securing servers prevents:

 

1. Theft

B.Compromise of the certificate chain

C.Man-in-the middle attacks

D.Denial of Service attacks

 

Answer: A   

 

Certswarrior is a team of highly MTA Security Fundamentals qualified professionals spending numerous efforts in preparation of 98-367 exam material same like actual questions and answers to make it easy for candidates/professionals to go through their final exam. Our material of 98-367 will be PDF file which will download instantly once purchase is completed.

Test Information:

Total Questions:  123

Test Number: 98-367

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  MSSQL-2008

Test Name:   MTA Security Fundamentals

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/98-367/

24/7 Customer Support Service of 98-366 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

One advantage of dynamic routing is that it:

 

1. Automatically maintains routing tables.
2. Limits traffic derived from routing protocols.
3. Reduces broadcast traffic.
4. Automatically enables DHCP.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

Which of the following represents a Media Access Control (MAC) address?

 

1. GV:ZC:KK:DK:FZ:CA
2. 255.255.255.0
3. 05:35:AB:6E:Al:25
4. 127.0.0.1

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 3

 

Connecting to a private network address from a public network requires:

 

1. Network address translation (NAT).
2. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
3. Network Access Protection (NAP).
4. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS).

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

A network device that associates a Media Access Control (MAC) address with a port is a:

 

1. DSL modem
2. Hub
3. Router
4. Switch

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

A Layer 2 device that connects multiple computers within a network is a:

 

1. Repeater
2. Switch
3. Router
4. Packet

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 6

 

A cable that meets the l000BaseT standard has a maximum length of:

 

1. 100 m
2. 250 m
3. 500 m
4. 1,000 m

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 7

 

A router's static route is set by the:

 

1. Adjacent network
2. Next upstream router
3. Network administrator
4. Routing protocol

 

Answer: C    

 

Question: 8

 

Which setting is used to determine the Domain Name System (DNS) settings on a client computer?

 

1. TELNET
2. NSLOOKUP
3. PATHPING
4. NETSTAT

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 9

 

The default subnet mask for a Class B network is:

 

1. 0.0.0.255
2. 0.0.255.255
3. 255.0.0.0
4. 255.255.0.0

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 10

 

The default port used for SMTP is:

 

1. 23
2. 25
3. 80
4. 8080

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 11

 

The ping tool is used to: (Choose two.)

 

1. Determine the network portion of a host address.
2. Self-test a host's own network interface.
3. Determine whether a host is reachable.
4. Manage a host's session when UDP is used.

 

Answer: B, C   

 

Question: 12

 

Which of the following are features of DHCP? (Choose two.)

 

1. IP address resolution to canonical names
2. Secure shell connections
3. Address reservation
4. Network file transfer
5. IP address exclusion

 

Answer: C, E   

 

Question: 13

 

The command-line tool used to list a host's active incoming connections is:

 

1. NETSTAT
2. IPCONFIG
3. NSLOOKUP
4. PING

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 14

 

A computer that has an IP address of 169.254.0.1 cannot access the network.

Which of the following services should you confirm is available?

 

1. WINS
2. DNS
3. DHCP
4. TFTP

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 15

 

Which network does the IP address 220.100.100.100 belong to?

 

1. 220.100.100.0/24
2. 220.100.100.1/24
3. 255.255.255.0/24
4. 255.255.255.1/24

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  176

Test Number: 98-366

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  MTA

Test Name:   MTA Networking Fundamentals

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/98-366/          

70-473 Dumps with Real 70-473 PDF Questions Answers 2018

Case Study: 1

Topic 1, Proseware, Inc.

Segment

Overview

Title

General Overview

Proseware, Inc. is a software engineering company that has 100 employees. Proseware has sales, marketing, accounts, human resources IT, and development departments.

The IT department has one team dedicated to managing the internal resources and one team dedicated to managing customer resources, which are located in the company’s hosting environment.

Proseware develops websites, basic web apps, and custom web apps. The websites and the apps are hosted and maintained in the hosting environment of Proseware.

Title

Physical Locations

Proseware has two offices located in Seattle and Montreal. The Seattle office contains all of the hardware required to host its customers’ websites, web apps, and databases. The Seattle office contains the IT team for the hosting environment.

The Montreal office contains all of the hardware required to host the company’s internal applications, databases, and websites.

Each office connects directly to the Internet. Testing reveals that the minimum latency from the offices to Microsoft Azure is 20 ms.

Title

Existing Environment

Internal Microsoft SQL Server Environment

Proseware uses a custom customer relationship management (CRM) application.

The internal Microsoft SQL Server environment contains two physical servers named CRM-A and CRM-B. Both servers run SQL Server 2012 Standard and host databases for the CRM application.

CRM-A hosts the principal instance and CRM-B hosts the mirrored instance of the CRM database. СRM-A also hosts databases for several other applications that are used by the company’s internal applications.

CRM-A has a quad core processor and 12 GB of RAM. CRM-В has a dual core processor and 8 GB of RAM.

Title

Custom Web Applications Environment

Some Proseware customers request custom web-based applications that require more than just databases, such as SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) and CLR stored procedures.

Proseware uses a Hyper-V server named Host1. Host1 has four instances of SQL Server 2014 Enterprise in the host operating system. The instances are mirrored on a server named Host2.

Host1 also hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. VM1 has SQL Server 2005 Standard installed. VM2 has SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition installed. VM3 has SQL Server 2008 Standard Edition installed. VM4 has SQL Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition installed.

Host1 uses a SAN to store all of the data and log files for the four SQL Server instances and the four virtual machines.

Title

Websites and Basic Web Apps Environment

Proseware has two physical servers named WebServer1 and WebData1. WebServer1 hosts basic web apps and websites for its customers. WebData1 has a database for each website and each basic web app that Proseware hosts. WebData1 has four cores and 8 GB of RAM.

Each website database contains customer information for billing purposes. Proseware generates a consolidated report that contains data from all of these databases.

The relevant databases on WebData1 are:

*CWDB: Currently 60 GB and is not expected to exceed 100 GB. CWDB contains a table named Personallinfo.

*MovieReviewDB: Currently 5 GB and is not expected to exceed 10 GB.

Title

Marketing Department

Proseware has a web app for the marketing department. The web app uses an Azure SQL database. Managers in the marketing department occasionally bulk load data by using a custom application. The database is updated daily.

Title

Problem Statements

Proseware identifies the following issues:

*   Lack of planning and knowledge has complicated the database environment

* Customers who have web apps hosted on Webserver1 report frequent outages caused by failures on

WebDatal. The current uptime is less than 90 percent .

* internally users complain of slow performance by the CRM application when the databases fail over to CRM-B

* WebDatal  has no high availability option for the databases or the server.

* An internal licensing audit of SQL  Server identifies that Proseware is non compliant. Hostl, CRM- A, and CRM-B are licensed properly. VM1 VM2, VM3, VM4, and WebDatal are unlicensed.                     

 

Question: 1

You are planning the consolidation of the databases from Host1.

You need to identify which methods to use to back up the data after the consolidation completes. What are two possible methods that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

 

1. BACKUP TO URL
2. AlwaysOn failover clustering
3. a maintenance plan
4. AlwaysOn Availability Groups

 

Answer: A,C   

 

 

Question: 2

 

You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the CRM application that meets the business requirements.

What should you recommend?

 

1. backup and restore by using Windows Azure Storage
2. log shipping
3. AlwaysOn Availability Groups
4. database mirroring

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

You are evaluating moving the data from WebData1 to an Azure SQL database.

You need to recommend a solution to generate the consolidated report for billing. The solution must meet the business requirements.

What should you include in the recommendation?

 

1. SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
2. SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS)
3. an elastic database job
4. an elastic query

 

Answer: D  

 

Question: 4

 

You are evaluating whether to replace CRM-B with an Azure virtual machine.

You need to identify the required virtual machine service tier to replace CRM-В. The solution must meet the following requirements:

Which virtual machine service tier should you identify?

 

1. Standard DS3
2. Standard A6
3. Standard GS2
4. Standard D3

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

References:

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/virtual-machines-windows-sizes/

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  47

Test Number: 70-473

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name:  Microsoft Azure

Test Name:   Designing and Implementing Cloud Data Platform Solutions

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-473/

1Z0-982 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in 1Z0-982

Question: 1

 

Which two Essbase options can be changed in PBCS? (Choose two.)

 

1. The default caches
2. The default CalcTaskDims
3. Aggregate missing values
4. Two-Pass Calculation

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Question: 2

 

After enabling the Financials framework, which three are recommended configuration tasks?

(Choose three.)

 

1. Adding custom expense driver categories
2. Completing Planning and Forecast Preparation
3. Setting up exchange rates (for multicurrency applications)
4. Adding custom dimensions
5. Removing custom dimensions

 

Answer: A,B,D   

 

Question: 3

 

Which two client requirements align with using an ASO plan type alongside the Enterprise

Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBCS) plan types? (Choose.)

 

1. Due to sparse dimensionality, Aggregation times are slow in EPBCS.
2. The client would like to plan revenue by Product and Services dimensions.
3. The client would like to report the results of the allocation process by Entity.
4. The client would like to store 10 years of actual history for reporting purposes but only requires

prior year history for planning purposes.

1. The client has 10 dimensions in the EPBCS application and needs to report at each intersection.

 

Answer: A,E   

 

Question: 4

 

What would be the recommended Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBC) cube

architecture for a company wanting to enable the Financials and Capital frameworks, as create a

Detailed Sales Forecasting cube with complex allocations and calculations, corresponding sales

reporting cube, and consolidated reporting cube?

 

1. 2 BSO cubes (1 required for the frameworks + 1 custom BSO cube), 2 ASO cubes
2. 3 custom BSO cubes, 2 ASO cubes
3. 3 BSO cubes (1 required for the frameworks + 2 custom BSO cubes), 2 ASO cubes
4. 3 BSO cubes (2 required for the frameworks + 1 custom BSO cube), 2 ASO cubes

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 5

 

Which three items would be in appropriate use case for "Data Management" in Enterprise

Planning and Budgeting Cloud (EPBCS)? (Choose three.)

 

1. An organization requires the ability to provide "Drill-back" capabilities.
2. An organization requires the ability to load data to their application via flat files.
3. An organization requires the ability to build dimension hierarchies
4. An organization requires the ability to process data from multiple chart of accounts
5. An organization requires the ability to map data from multiple chart string segments to a single

dimension

 

Answer: A,B,D    

 

Question: 6

 

A company has enabled the Financials business process and now would like to make changes

to the initial configuration.

Which three changes can be made after the initial setup of the Financials framework?

(Choose three.)

 

1. Disabling already enabled features
2. Enabling Rolling Forecast
3. Enabling Income Statement
4. Enabling Expense
5. Removing custom dimensions
6. Adding custom dimensions

 

Answer: C,D,F   

 

Question: 7

 

Which financial framework member within the Plan Element dimension stores the aggregated

value of all driver-derived calculations after adjustments have been applied?

 

1. OFS_Adjustment
2. OFS_Trend
3. OFS_Calculated
4. OFS_Total

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 8

 

The company would like to enable Financials, Workforce, and Project frameworks. They would

like to plan and forecast the Project dimension in the Financials framework, as well as track employee

utilization in the projects framework.

Which two actions must they take to ensure that the Project dimension is shared and the data

integrated correctly across all three frameworks?

 

1. In the Projects framework, ensure that the Employee driver-based expense is enabled.
2. In the Workforce framework, rename one of the custom dimensions to "Project" and enable it
3. In the Financials framework, rename one of the custom dimensions to "Project" and enable it
4. In the Workforce framework, ensure that the granularity is at Employee or Employee and Job

 

Answer: C,D

Test Information:

Total Questions:  80

Test Number: 1Z0-982

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle Enterprise Planning and Budgeting Cloud Service 2017 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-982/                          

Instant Success 1Z0-346 Exam with Valid 1Z0-346 Questions Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

The green circle indicates that the development instance is working within "Normal" parameters.

Which statement accurately comments on "Normal" in this context? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. "Normal" is based on a value defined in a policies file that can be updated by a system

administrator for each MCS instance.

1. Values such as "Normal" are defined as settings by the services developer for each mobile

backend.

1. "Normal" is defined on a mobile backend when it is published.
2. The system administrator is prompted to define values such as "Normal" when provisioning an

instance of MCS.

1. "Normal" is automatically set based on the subscribed service-level agreements (SLAs) of the cloud

infrastructure managed by Oracle.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Consider these two code examples that are equivalent for calling a connector via a custom API.

Example 1:

req.oracleMobile.connectors.post('globalweather', 'GetWeather', body, {inType: 'json',

versionToInvoke: '1.0'}).then(..etc..); Example 2:

req.oracleMobile.connectors.globalweather.post('GetWeather', body, {inType: 'json'

}).then(..etc..);

If you use Example 2 rather than Example 1, what single thing must you also do to make the Example

2 code work?

 

1. Define the connector and version in the custom API's package.json file.
2. Set the globalweather custom API as the default API implementation.
3. Publish the MCS globalweather vl.0 connector before calling it.
4. Create the GetWeather endpoint and Post method via the custom API design.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Your mobile developer is using the MCS SDK to track analytic events. Which three options

correctly identify the information that is automatically tracked and reported to MCS without the

need for a developer to explicitly record the event? (Choose three.)

 

1. every REST call made to MCS
2. user interaction information (such as a button click or a swipe) on a mobile application page
3. session information
4. user information
5. API calls

 

Answer: C,D,E   

 

Question: 4

 

Log messages can be filtered by application session, user, device ID, and correlation ID.

Which statement accurately describes what the correlation ID can tell you in a log entry?

(Choose the best answer.)

 

1. It associates a log entry with a specific mobile use case.
2. It identifies all log entries that are written for a single request regardless of which log files hold the

information.

1. It identifies the regional location of a request in the log entry.
2. It associates logs written for a specific application with a device.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 5

 

The Node.js implementation in MCS has been extended to implicitly include several Node.js

modules. Which module allows MCS to handle HTTP requests and responses?

(Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Grunt
2. Express
3. Bluebird
4. Async
5. http-server

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

Which statement correctly describes a functionality of the MCS client SDKs?

 

1. They can be used to call only the custom APIs defined in MCS.
2. They can be used to call only the MCS platform APIs.
3. The MCS SDKs for iOS and Android manage capabilities such as storing data when you work offline.
4. They provide a library of native user interface widgets for building features such as login pages.

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  72

Test Number: 1Z0-346

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name:  Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle Mobile Cloud Service 2016 Developer Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-346/          

Latest ITILFND Questions Answers To pass Your ITILFND Exam 2018

Question: 1

 

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

 

1. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
2. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
3. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
4. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

 

1. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resources
2. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions
3. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes
4. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 3

 

Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

 

1. The service portfolio includes all services except those managed by third parties
2. It is an integral part of the service catalogue
3. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deployments
4. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

 

1. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
2. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
3. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
4. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

 

1. The availability of a service or component
2. The level of risk that affects a service or process
3. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
4. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

 

1. Service transition planning and support
2. Design coordination
3. Service level management
4. Change management

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 7

 

Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

 

1. Change management
2. Service catalogue management
3. Supplier management
4. Release and deployment management

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 8

 

What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

 

1. Informational, scheduled, normal
2. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
3. Informational, warning, exception
4. Warning, reactive, proactive

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 9

 

Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

 

1. Budgeting and charging
2. Accounting and charging
3. Budgeting and accounting
4. Costing and charging

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 10

 

Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

 

1. Capacity management
2. Incident management
3. Service level management
4. Financial management

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 11

 

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

 

1. Describes the topography of the hardware
2. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
3. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
4. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 12

 

Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

 

1. Intrusion detection
2. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
3. Recording service desk staff absence
4. Monitoring the status of configuration items

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 13

 

Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

 

1. Providing physical security for staff at data centres and other buildings
2. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
3. Managing access to the service desk
4. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 14

 

Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

 

1. 1 and 3 only
2. All of the above
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 and 3 only

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 15

 

Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

 

1. To identify patterns of business activity
2. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
3. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
4. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 16

 

Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

 

1. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
2. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
3. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
4. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  324

Test Number: ITILFND

Vendor Name: Exin                        

Cert Name:  Exin-ITIL

Test Name:   ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/itilfnd/

Instant Success ITIL-F Exam with Valid ITIL-F Questions Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

Which process works with incident management to ensure that security breaches are detected and logged?

 

1. Change management
2. Service level management
3. Access Management
4. Continual Service improvement

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

What is defined as "any change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service"?

 

1. A request for change
2. An incident
3. A problem
4. An event

 

Answer: D   

 

Event:  Any change of state that has significance for the management of an IT service or other configuration item. The term can also be used to mean an alert or notification created by any IT service, Configuration Item or a Monitoring tool.  Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions and often lead to Incidents being logged.

 

Question: 3

 

Which lifecycle stage defines how value is created and delivered?

 

1. Service design
2. Service strategy
3. Continual service improvement
4. Service operation

 

Answer: B   

 

The objectives of service strategy includes :

1. An understanding of what strategy is.
2. A clear identification of the definition of services and the customers who use them.
3. The ability to define how value is created and delivered.
4. Means to identify opportunities to provide services and how to exploit them.
5. A clear service provision model that articulates how services will be delivered and funded as well as to whom they will be delivered and for what purpose.

 

Question: 4

 

What structure of service desk appears to the customer to be a single centralized desk, but may in fact be based in a number of different locations?

 

1. Centralized Service desk
2. Virtual Service desk
3. Local service desk
4. Specialized service desk

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

 

Which service lifecycle stage supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services?

 

1. Service strategy
2. Service design
3. Service level management
4. Service operation

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 6

 

Which statement is CORRECT?

 

1. The configuration management system is part of the known error database
2. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system.
3. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system.
4. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

Which BEST describes a situation in which the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is used?

 

1. Following a full change advisory board (CAB) to resolve any outstanding agenda items.
2. During peak or holiday periods when emergencies are more likely to occur.
3. In an emergency when it is not possible to convene a full CAB.
4. Outside the normal working hours of the business unit.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 8

 

What is the best description of an external customer?

 

1. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider
2. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services
3. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider
4. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 9

 

Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?

 

1. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
2. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
3. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
4. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics

 

Answer: C

 

Question: 10

 

Which areas are NOT measured by process KPIs?

 

1. Technology
2. Performance
3. Value
4. Compliance
5. 1, 2 and 3 only
6. 1, 2 and 4 only
7. 1, 3 and 4 only
8. 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer: D

 

Question: 11

 

Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

 

1. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
2. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
3. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
4. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

What should a service always deliver to customers?

 

1. Applications
2. Infrastructure
3. Value
4. Resources

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 13

 

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

 

1. It is measurable
2. It delivers specific results
3. It responds to specific events
4. It structures an organization

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 14

 

What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

 

1. Strategic customers
2. External customers
3. Valued customers
4. Internal customers

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 15

 

Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?

 

1. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unit
2. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customers
3. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure components
4. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

 

Answer: D   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  324

Test Number: ITIL-F

Vendor Name: Exin                        

Cert Name:  ITIL V3

Test Name:   ITIL® Foundation

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/itil-f/

Why Should You Purchase BCS ITILF Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

 

1. Both of the above
2. 1 only
3. Neither of the above
4. 2 only

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?

 

1. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services
2. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose
3. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
4. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

 

1. Standards
2. Technology
3. Academic research
4. Internal experience

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 4

 

Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

 

1. The five ITIL volumes are concise
2. It is not tied to any particular vendor platform
3. It tells service providers exactly how to be successful
4. It is designed to be used to manage projects

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

 

What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

 

1. Business services
2. Component services
3. Supporting services
4. Customer services

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

 

1. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement results
2. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processes
3. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfaction
4. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 7

 

Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

 

1. Service Strategy
2. Continual Service Improvement
3. Service Operation
4. Service Design

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 8

 

Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

 

1. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management
2. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
3. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
4. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

 

1. Reduced total cost of ownership
2. Improved quality of service
3. Improved Service alignment with business goals
4. Better balance of technical skills to support live services

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 10

 

Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

 

1. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management
2. Change management, capacity management event management, service request management
3. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration management
4. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfilment

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  324

Test Number: ITILF

Vendor Name: BCS                        

Cert Name:  IT Service Management

Test Name:   ITIL Foundation

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/itilf/

Why Should You Purchase HP HPE6-A45 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

AOS-Switches will enforce 802.1X authentication on edge ports. The company has two RADIUS servers, which are meant to provide redundancy and load sharing of requests. The exhibit shows the planned RADIUS settings to deploy to the switches.

What should customers understand about this plan?

 

1. AOS switches do not support two RADIUS servers for redundancy, instead, a secondary authentication method is required.
2. Dynamic authentication is only permitted on one of the RADIUS servers and must be removed from the other.
3. Each RADIUS server must use a unique port number for the authentication and dynamic authorization port.
4. Each AOS-Switch will send all RADIUS requests to the first server on the list unless that server becomes unreachable.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 2

 

An administrator wants to ensure that an AOS-Switch forwards all traffic that it receives on interface 1 with high priority.

- Switches should also communicate the high priority to other switches across the traffic path.

- The switch has type of service disabled.

- The administrator plans to apply 802.1p priority 5 to interface 1.

What should the administrator check to ensure that the configuration will work properly?

 

1. Interface 1 receives traffic with a tag.
2. The AOS-Switch is configured to use eight queues.
3. The forwarding path for the traffic uses VLAN tags.
4. An 802.1p-to-DSCP map exists for priority 5.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

A network administrator sets up prioritization for an application that runs between Device 1 and Device 2. However, the QoS for the application is not what the administrator expects.

How can the administrator check if the network infrastructure prioritizes traffic from Device 1 and Device 2?

 

1. Run a packet capture on Device 2, run the application, and look in the packet capture for a high value DSCP in the IP header.
2. Set up RMON alarms on the switches that trigger when a high number of packets are dropped. Then, run the application and check for the alarm.
3. Clear interface statistics on the switches. Then, run the application and check the interface queue statistics for the switch-to-switch links.
4. Run a packet capture on Device 1, run the application, and look in the packet capture for a high value DSCP in the IP header.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

The exhibits show the current operational state for routes on Switch-3. The company wants Switch-3 to prefer the link to Switch-1 over the link to Switch-2 for all intra-area, inter-area, and external traffic.

What can the network administrator do to achieve this goal?

 

1. Set the OSPF cost on VLAN 108 higher than 1 on Switch-2 and Switch-3.
2. Set the OSPF administrative distance on Switch-2 higher than 110.
3. Set the OSPF area type to normal on all of the switches in Area 1.
4. Set the cost in the OSPF Area 1 stub command higher than 1 on Switch-2.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

An AOS-Switch implements tunneled node.

Which benefit does the PAPI enhanced security key provide?

 

1. It validates the signature for firmware pushed to the switch dynamically.
2. It encrypts traffic sent and received by tunneled-node endpoints.
3. It authenticates control traffic between the switch and its Mobility Controller.
4. It provides an extra layer of authentication for endpoints on tunneled-node ports.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 6

 

A network administrator needs to deploy AOS-Switches that implement port-based tunneled node. Their Aruba controller has IP address 10.1.10.5/24. The architect has assigned tunneled-node endpoints to VLAN 20.

What is one issue with the current configuration planned for VLAN 20 on the switch?

 

1. VLAN 20 must have GRE enabled on it.
2. VLAN 20 cannot have an IP address.
3. VLAN 20 must have an IP address in the same subnet as the controller.
4. VLAN 20 must not enable jumbo frames.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 7

 

OSPF Area 1 has two ABRs. One ABR is configured with this range for Area 1: 10.10.0.0/16. The other ABR is not configured with a range for Area 1.

Which type of issue occurs due to this mismatch?

 

1. The ABRs create a discontinuous area and disrupt intra-area routing between devices within Area 1.
2. The ABR core would send Area 1 traffic destined to the other switch through an access switch.
3. The ABRs lose adjacency entirely and cannot route traffic between each other at all.
4. The ABRs lose adjacency in Area 1 and must route all traffic to each other through Area 0.

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  61

Test Number: HPE6-A45

Vendor Name: HP                          

Cert Name: HPE Aruba Certified

Test Name:   Implementing Aruba Campus Switching Solutions

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/hpe6-a45/

Why Should You Purchase HP HPE6-A29 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

Which configuration item accepts named VLANs as a parameter? (Select three )

 

1. RADIUS Server attributes for role derivation
2. Authentication Server attributes for server derivation
3. User Role for single VLAN
4. Port trunk configuration
5. Firewall session rule

 

Answer: ABC   

 

Question: 2

 

Which system clock parameter settings can be configured for an Aruba controller using the Web GUI? (Select three)

 

1. Service priority
2. Time Zone
3. NTP authentication
4. NTP server access method.
5. Day/night saving time.

 

Answer: BCD   

 

Explanation:

http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_63_Web_Help/Content/ArubaFrameStyles/Management_Utilities/Setting_the_System_Clock.htm

 

Question: 3

 

An administrator wants Aps to boot and discover the master controller in a master-local topology. After connect to the master, the Aps will connect to the appropriate local controller based on the AP Group configuration. DNS will be used to discover the master controller’s IP address?

 

1. aruba-discovery company.com
2. master.company.com
3. activate.arubanetworks.com
4. aruba-master.company.com

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

An administrator supports a wireless network that includes Aruba Mobility controllers and Aruba Aps. The network has on Virtual AP (VAP) profile configured for employees and one VAP profile configured for guests. The network has 200 employees now, but, because of rapid expansion and the move to a brand new campus network, the number of employees is expected to increase to over 500. The administrator wants to continue to use only two VAPs to keep the WLAN implementation simple.

Which feature should the administrator implement for the employee VAP that will allow it to scale to a large number of users?

 

1. Source NAT
2. VLAN Mobility
3. VLAN Pools
4. IP Mobility

 

Answer: C   

 

Explanation:

http://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/vrd/RAPVRD_version_8.pdf

 

Question: 5

 

An administrator sets up a captive portal tor guest access with these specifications:

* VLAN 18 for the guest users will terminate on the controller and will not extend into the corporate network.

* Aps that advertise the guest SSID will tunnel traffic to the controller, and the controller will authenticate the users.

* Once the users are authenticated, the user traffic will be translated to a different VLAN before it is forwarded to the corporate network to reach the internet.

When the administrator sets up this solution, the users fails to see the captive portal web page for authentication and cannot access the internet. The administrator determines the problem is that the guest VLAN does not have any ports associated to it on the controller.

Which CLI command should the administrator implement to resolve the issue?

 

1. interface vlan 19 no shutdown
2. vlan 18 operstate up
3. vlan 18 enable
4. interface blan 19 operstate up.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 6

 

An administrator provisions a Remote AP (RAP) and plans to install it at a branch office. The administrator tries to determine which discovery method should be used for the RAP to discover and connect to the corporate office controller across the internet.

Which method would cause the RAP to fail to discover and connect to the corporate office controller?

 

1. DNS
2. DHCP
3. LMS IP address in the AP Group
4. Aruba Discovery Protocol (ADP)

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

An administrator configures a Virtual AP (VAP) profile for an AP Group Which profiles must the administrator reference in the VAP configuration so that the VAP is functional and the WLAN can be used to connect wireless users to the network? (Select two.)

 

1. AAA
2. Radio Settings
3. SSID
4. VLAN Profile
5. System Profile

 

Answer: AC   

 

Explanation:

http://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/ArubaOS_64_Web_Help/Content/ArubaFrameStyles/VirtualAPs/Virtual_AP_Profiles.htm

 

Question: 8

 

Which DHCP option does an Aruba AP use to identity itself as an Aruba AP when it acquires IP addressing information from a DHCP server?

 

1. 43
2. 47
3. 60
4. 4500

 

Answer: A

 

Explanation:

http://community.arubanetworks.com/t5/tkb/articleprintpage/tkb-id/ControllerBasedWLANs/article-id/1933

 

Question: 9

 

An administrator implements a WLAN virtual AP (VAP) to authenticate employee access on Aruba Mobility Controller in a master-local topology. However, when testing wireless access from a Windows client the administrator sees the pop-up window show in the exhibit:

What should the administrator do to solve this problem?

 

1. Add a client certificate from the same CA used to obtain the controller’s certificate on the Windows client.
2. Add the root certificate for the corresponding controller identity certificate on the windows client.
3. Configure the client’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the Windows client.
4. Define the controller’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the windows client.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 10

 

Examine this configuration file segment of an Aruba Mobility Controller

ip access-list session anewone

user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit

user host 10.1.1.1 any deny

user any any permit

What can an administrator conclude from this file segment? (Select three)

 

1. Any traffic originating from 10.1.1.1 will be denied
2. Any traffic going to destination 172.16.100.100 will be permitted
3. Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 win be denied
4. This is an Ethertype Access Control List (ACL)
5. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL)
6. Any Traffic going to destination 10.2.2.2. will be denied.

 

Answer: BDE   

 

Question: 11

 

An administrator plans to deploy a Remote AP (RAP) for a new branch office. The AP Group will have one Virtual AP (VAP) profile for guests and one VAP profile for employees. All employee traffic will be sent to the corporate office. The guest traffic should be forwarded directly to the internet from the RAP.

Which RAP operating mode should the administrator configure for the guest VAP?

 

1. Bridge
2. Tunnel
3. Source NAT
4. Split-Tunnel

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

http://www.airheads.eu/aruba/attachments/aruba/Aruba-VRDs/44/1/Aruba%20RAP%20VRD.pdf

 

Question: 12

 

An administrator manages a network that includes three campuses. The network uses Aruba Mobility Controllers and Aruba Aps. Each campus is managed separately, where each campus has its own master-local topology. The administrator wants to simplify the operations of control plane security (CPSec) to allow Aps to be centrally provisioned but can be placed in any campus.

What must the administrator do to allow an AP to securely connect to any controller in any campus?

 

1. Set up a third-party solution to provide root certificate Authority (CA) and subordinate CA services.
2. Set up three cluster domains with a single CPSec Trust Anchor for the entire network
3. Se up one master controller as a CPSec Trust Anchor and the order master controllers as cluster members.
4. Set up master controller as a CPSec Trust Anchor at each of the three campuses.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 13

 

Which method can Aps use to discover a controller?

 

1. Dynamic DNS (DDNS)
2. PAPI
3. ADP broadcast
4. HTTPS

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 14

 

A master fails in a master-local topology with central licensing enabled. There is no standby server configured.

What happens to the local controllers?

 

1. Local controllers continue to operate for 30 days and accept new Aps.
2. Local controllers operate with active Aps, but will not accept any other Aps.
3. Local controllers can only use their originally-installed licenses.
4. Local controllers continue to operate for the length of their license subscription.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 15

 

Examine the configuration file segment from an Aruba Mobility Controller.

ip access-list session anewone

user network 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 any permit

user host 10.1.1.1 any deny

user any any permit

What can administrator conclude from this?

 

1. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL)
2. Any traffic going to destination 172.16.197.713 will be permitted
3. Any traffic going to destination 10.1.1.1 will be denied.
4. This is a session firewall policy.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 16

 

An administrator sets up Layer 3 roaming between controllers in a mobility domain. Which method is used to forward traffic from a foreign agent (FA) back to the user’s home agent (HA)?

 

1. GRE Tunneling
2. PAPI Tunneling
3. IPSec tunneling
4. VLAN switching

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 17

 

With control Plane security (CPSec) enabled, Aruba Aps connect to controllers with which protocol?

 

1. GRE
2. HTTPs
3. IPsec
4. PPTP

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 18

 

In which mode must an Aruba AP be provisioned to implement WIPS?

 

1. Mesh
2. Split-Tunnel
3. Air Monitor
4. Spectrum

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 19

 

An administrator currently has one Aruba Mobility Controller in the network. Because of the company’s rapid growth, the administrator plans to purchase three additional controllers that will be configured in a local operating mode. The administrator wants to protect the messages between the existing master controller and three local controllers.

Which Aruba Mobility controller feature needs to be configured to provide this protection?

 

1. Control Plane Security (CPSec)
2. Domain controls
3. IPSec tunnels
4. Digital certificates

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 20

 

A company uses Aruba Mobility Controllers and Aruba Aps. The Aps incur a power outage.

Which Aruba feature should be implemented to allow the surrounding Aps to provide wireless coverage for the area of the AP that lost power?

 

1. Airtime Fairness
2. Adaptive Radio Management
3. Band Balancing
4. High Availability

 

Answer: B    

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  301

Test Number: HPE6-A29

Vendor Name: HP                          

Cert Name: HPE Aruba Certified

Test Name:   Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.4

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/HPE6-A29/

Features of CertsWarrior SAP C_TSCM62_67 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

Your customer wants to use warehouse transfer orders for picking when processing a delivery

using lean warehouse management.

How do you achieve this? (Choose two)

 

1. Activate the sales document type for warehouse management.
2. Assign a warehouse number to a combination of plant and storage location in the organizational

structure.

1. Activate the sales document type for lean warehouse management.
2. Activate the assigned warehouse number as a lean warehouse.

 

Answer: B,D   

 

Question: 2

 

How does SAP make new functions of the SAP ERP system available to the customer?

 

1. Via enhancement packages
2. Via Support Packages
3. Via best practices
4. Via add-ons

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

 In which of the following scenarios can you use the material listing function?

 

1. To set a list of materials that the customer can buy
2. To generate a detailed report about materials
3. To set a list of materials that the customer cannot buy
4. To group materials to different lists

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

What is the purpose of the moving price or standard price in the Accounting view in the

material master? (Choose two)

 

1. To determine the value that is used for the accounting document when posting goods issue
2. To display the average net sales price of this material during the last year
3. To define the value that is used when posting the receivables for a customer ordering this material
4. To display statistical information for the costs in the pricing environment of a sales order

 

Answer: A,D   

 

Question: 5

 

Which of the following parameters can you set in the schedule line category? (Choose three)

 

1. Delivery type
2. Movement type
3. Availability check
4. Shipping condition
5. Transfer of requirements

 

Answer: B,C,E   

 

Question: 6

 

Which of these components is included in SAP Solution Manager?

 

1. Service Desk
2. Enterprise Search
3. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
4. Master data management

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 7

 

Which of the following standard indicators influence the pricing procedure determination in a sales document?

 

1. Plant and customer pricing procedure
2. Account assignment group and material pricing procedure
3. Division and material pricing procedure
4. Distribution channel and customer pricing procedure

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 8

 

Which of the following is controlled by the configuration of the billing type?

 

1. How account determination takes place
2. Whether order-related billing is supported when using this billing type
3. Whether a billing plan is determined when using this billing type
4. How the item category within the billing document is determined

 

Answer: A

Test Information:

Total Questions:  93

Test Number: C_TSCM62_67

Vendor Name: SAP                        

Cert Name: SAP Certified Application Associate

Test Name:   SAP Certified Application Associate - Sales and Distribution, ERP 6.0 EhP7

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/c_tscm62_67/               

Why Should You Purchase Cisco 640-692 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?

 

1. AUX
2. Gigabit Ethernet
3. Fast Ethernet
4. Channelized serial

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)

 

1. Encapsulation type
2. Interface status
3. Layer 2 address
4. Layer 3 address
5. Keep alive

 

Answer: B, D   

 

Question: 3

 

The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)

 

1. Pins 1 and 4
2. Pins 1 and 7
3. Pins 2 and 5
4. Pins 2 and 8
5. Pins 1 and 5
6. Pins 2 and 7

 

Answer: A, C   

 

Question: 4

 

What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)

 

1. Start > Run Enter Notepad and 'Ink OK
2. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
3. Start > All Programs > Notepad
4. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
5. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad

 

Answer: A, D   

 

Question: 5

 

Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)

 

1. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
2. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
3. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
4. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
5. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID

 

Answer: A, B, E   

 

Question: 6

 

Which of the following is a DTE device?

 

1. router
2. CSU/DSU
3. cable modem
4. DSL modem

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 7

 

Which two of the following statements are true about a switch? (Choose two)

 

1. It is a repeater.
2. It is a data link layer device.
3. It will forward the frame out all ports when it receives a broadcast from a host.
4. It reads the destination MAC address to forward traffic out the appropriate port.
5. It acts as an amplifier.

 

Answer: B, D   

 

Question: 8

 

Which of the following best describes the cable that is used to connect a laptop to an Ethernet port on a Cisco router?

 

1. Crossover
2. Straight-through
3. Fiber
4. Rollover

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Which type of cable us used on the ATM card?

 

1. Fiber-optic BNC
2. Coaxial
3. Serial
4. Crossover

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

What are two features that are associated with single-mode fiber-optic cable? (Choose two.)

 

1. a single strand of glass fiber
2. carries higher bandwidth than multimode fiber
3. cost is less than multimode fiber
4. operates over less distance than multimode fiber

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 11

 

Into which port do you insert the card?

 

1. ATM
2. Gigabit Ethernet
3. Serial
4. Ethernet

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  92

Test Number: 640-692

Vendor Name: Cisco                      

Cert Name: Field Technician

Test Name:   Supporting Cisco Routing and Switching Network Devices (RSTECH)

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/640-692/

Why Should You Purchase Microsoft 70-740 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

You have a Nano Server named Nano1.

Which cmdlet should you use to identify whether the DNS Server role is installed on Nano1?

 

1. Find-NanoServerPackage
2. Get-Package
3. Find-Package
4. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

You deploy a Hyper-V server named Served in an isolated test environment The test environment is prevented from accessing the Internet Server1 runs the Datacenter edition of Windows Server 2016.

You plan to deploy the following guest virtual machines on the server

 

Which activation model should you use for the virtual machines'?

 

1. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
2. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA)
3. Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) key
4. Key Management Service (KMS)

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

You have a Nano Server named Nano1.

You deploy several containers to Nano1 that use an image named Image1.

You need to deploy a new container to Nano1 that uses Image1.

What should you run?

 

1. the Install-NanoServerPackage cmdlet
2. theInstall-WindowsFeaturecmdlet
3. the docker load command
4. the docker run command

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

You have a Hyper-V host named Served That runs Windows Server 2016

Server1 has a virtual machine named VM1 VM1 is configured to run the Docker daemon.

On VM1 you have a container network that uses transparent mode

You need to ensure that containers that run on VM1 can obtain IP addresses from DHCP.

What should you do?

 

1. On VM1, rundocker network connect
2. On Server1 runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On
3. On Server1, rundocker network connect
4. On VM1, runGet-VMNetworkAdapter-VMName VM1| Set-VMNetworkAdapter-MacAddressSpoofing On.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 5

 

You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 will be used as a VPN server. You need to configure Server1 to support VPN Reconnect. Which VPN protocol should you use?

 

1. PPTP
2. L2TP
3. SSTP
4. lKEv2

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 6

 

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 You install the Docker daemon on Server! You need to configure the Docker daemon to accept connections only on TCP port 64500. What should you do?

 

1. Run theNew-NetFirewallRulecmdlet
2. Run theSet-ServiceWindows PowerShell cmdlet.
3. Edit the daemon.json file.
4. Edit the configuration json file

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso com The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. You install the Remote Access server role on Server1. You install the Network Policy and Access Services server role on Server2. You need to configure Server1 to use Server2 as a RADIUS server.

What should you do?

 

1. From Routing and Remote Access, configure the authentication provider.
2. From the Connection Manager Administration Kit, create a Connection Manager profile
3. From Server Manager, create an Access Policy.
4. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer account.

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  191

Test Number: 70-740

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name: MCSA

Test Name:   Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-740/

Why Should You Purchase Cisco 200-125 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

Which protocol advertises a virtual IP address to facilitate transparent failover of a Cisco routing device?

 

1. FHRP
2. DHCP
3. RSMLT
4. ESRP

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

What are three broadband wireless technologies? (Choose three.)

 

1. WiMax
2. satellite Internet
3. municipal Wi-Fi
4. site-to-site VPN
5. DSLAM
6. CMTS

 

Answer: A, B, C   

 

Question: 3

 

Which condition indicates that service password-encryption is enabled?

 

1. The local username password is encrypted in the configuration.
2. The enable secret is encrypted in the configuration.
3. The local username password is in clear text in the configuration.
4. The enable secret is in clear text in the configuration.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

Which two spanning-tree port states does RSTP combine to allow faster convergence? (Choose two.)

 

1. blocking
2. listening
3. learning
4. forwarding
5. discarding

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 5

 

Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?

 

1. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
2. inter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch
3. intra-VLAN routing using router on a stick
4. intra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 6

 

In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)

 

1. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
2. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
3. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
4. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
5. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
6. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.

 

Answer: A, B, C   

 

Question: 7

 

Which feature builds a FIB and an adjacency table to expedite packet forwarding?

 

1. Cisco Express Forwarding
2. process switching
3. fast switching
4. cut-through

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 8

 

What is the purpose of the POST operation on a router?

 

1. determine whether additional hardware has been added
2. locate an IOS image for booting
3. enable a TFTP server
4. set the configuration register

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface?

 

1. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
2. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
3. router(config-router)#default-information originate
4. router(config-router)#default-information originate always

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 10

 

Which two types of NAT addresses are used in a Cisco NAT device? (Choose two.)

 

1. inside local
2. inside global
3. inside private
4. outside private
5. external global
6. external local

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 11

 

What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?

 

1. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.
2. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
3. It can disable the overload command.
4. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

Which protocol is the Cisco proprietary implementation of FHRP?

 

1. HSRP
2. VRRP
3. GLBP
4. CARP

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 13

 

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

 

1. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
2. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
3. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
4. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
5. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 14

 

Which three characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three.)

 

1. provides common view of entire topology
2. exchanges routing tables with neighbors
3. calculates shortest path
4. utilizes event-triggered updates
5. utilizes frequent periodic updates

 

Answer: A, C, D   

 

Question: 15

 

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the given configuration?

 

1. It configures an inactive switch virtual interface.
2. It configures an active management interface.
3. It configures the native VLAN.
4. It configures the default VLAN.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 16

 

Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?

 

1. Switch#show vlan id 20
2. Switch#show ip interface brief
3. Switch#show interface vlan 20
4. Switch#show ip interface vlan 20

 

Answer: A    

 

Question: 17

 

If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?

 

1. a switch with priority 20480
2. a switch with priority 8192
3. a switch with priority 4096
4. a switch with priority 12288

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 18

 

Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)

 

1. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
2. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
3. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
4. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
5. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 19

 

Which two features can dynamically assign IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

 

1. IPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
2. DHCP
3. NHRP
4. IPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
5. ISATAP tunneling

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 20

 

Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?

 

1. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48
2. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
3. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
4. Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 21

 

Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)

 

1. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
2. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
3. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
4. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
5. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
6. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin

 

Answer: A, B, C   

 

Question: 22

 

Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)

 

1. It uses consistent route determination.
2. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
3. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
4. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
5. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
6. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.

 

Answer: A, B, C   

 

Question: 23

 

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

 

1. outside global
2. outside local
3. inside global
4. inside local
5. outside public
6. inside public

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 24

 

Which command can you enter to display the hits counter for NAT traffic?

 

1. show ip nat statistics
2. debug ip nat
3. show ip debug nat
4. clear ip nat statistics

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 25

 

Which standards-based First Hop Redundancy Protocol is a Cisco supported alternative to Hot Standby Router Protocol?

 

1. VRRP
2. GLBP
3. TFTP
4. DHCP

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 26

 

What are two reasons that duplex mismatches can be difficult to diagnose? (Choose two.)

 

1. The interface displays a connected (up/up) state even when the duplex settings are mismatched.
2. The symptoms of a duplex mismatch may be intermittent.
3. Autonegotiation is disabled.
4. Full-duplex interfaces use CSMA/CD logic, so mismatches may be disguised by collisions.
5. 1-Gbps interfaces are full-duplex by default.

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 27

 

Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?

 

1. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
2. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
3. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
4. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 28

 

Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and assign it to an interface on a switch?

 

1. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

1. Switch(config)#Interface gig x/y

Switch(config-if)#vlan 20

Switch(config-vlan)#switchport access vlan 20

1. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20

1. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20

1. Switch(config)#vlan 20

Switch(config)#Interface vlan 20

Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 29

 

Which spanning-tree protocol rides on top of another spanning-tree protocol?

 

1. MSTP
2. RSTP
3. PVST+
4. Mono Spanning Tree

 

Answer: A   

Question: 30

 

What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three.)

 

1. They establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
2. They provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
3. They utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
4. They can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
5. They allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
6. They provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.

 

Answer: ADE   

 

Question: 31

 

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many broadcast domains are present on the router?

 

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 8

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 32

 

Which command can you use to set the hostname on a switch?

 

1. switch-mdf-c1(config)#hostname switch-mdf1
2. switch-mdf-c1>hostname switch-mdf1
3. switch-mdf-c1#hostname switch-mdf1
4. switch-mdf-c1(config-if)#hostname switch-mdf1

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 33

 

If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?

 

1. switch 0004.9A1A.C182
2. switch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
3. switch 00E0.F726.3DC6
4. switch 0040.0BC0.90C5

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 34

 

Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?

 

1. Hop Limit
2. Flow Label
3. TTD
4. Hop Count
5. Scan Timer

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 35

 

Which two statements about the tunnel mode ipv6ip command are true? (Choose two.)

 

1. It enables the transmission of IPv6 packets within the configured tunnel.
2. It specifies IPv4 as the encapsulation protocol.
3. It specifies IPv6 as the encapsulation protocol.
4. It specifies IPv6 as the transport protocol.
5. It specifies that the tunnel is a Teredo tunnel.

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 36

 

What is the correct routing match to reach 172.16.1.5/32?

 

1. 172.16.1.0/26
2. 172.16.1.0/25
3. 172.16.1.0/24
4. the default route

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 37

 

Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?

 

1. bootstrap
2. POST
3. mini-IOS
4. ROMMON mode

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 38

 

Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?

 

1. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
2. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
3. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
4. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 39

 

Which technology allows a large number of private IP addresses to be represented by a smaller number of public IP addresses?

 

1. NAT
2. NTP
3. RFC 1631
4. RFC 1918

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 40

 

What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?

 

1. It enables port address translation.
2. It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted.
3. It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.
4. It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.

 

Answer: A   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  150

Test Number: 200-125

Vendor Name: Cisco                      

Cert Name: CCNA

Test Name:   CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/200-125/        

Features of CertsWarrior Microsoft 70-742 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in fabrikam.com, you configure contoso.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso needs to trust Fabrikam.

 

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted user domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso would need to be the Trusted User Domain.

 

Question: 4

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 5

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 6

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema (not just domain schema).

 

Question: 7

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From a domain controller, you run the Set-AdComputer cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 8

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Local Users and Groups preference.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Account Policies settings.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1.

You recently restored a backup of the Active Directory database from Server1 to an alternate Location.

The restore operation does not interrupt the Active Directory services on Server1.

You need to make the Active Directory data in the backup accessible by using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP).

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: E   

 

Question: 11

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

You need to limit the number of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) objects that a user can create in the domain.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.

You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: C   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  150

Test Number: 70-742

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name: MCSA

Test Name:   Identity with Windows Server 2016

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-742/

Features of CertsWarrior 1Z0-330 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

As an implementation consultant, you have defined a total compensation statement. From a security perspective, you are required to identify a key user who will have access to view the total compensation statement.

Which role is mandatory to view the compensation statement? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Compensation Analyst
2. Compensation Executive
3. Compensation Specialist
4. Compensation Manager

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 2

 

What is the maximum number and kind of items that you can add when defining a custom category? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. three custom columns
2. five custom columns
3. three items
4. three subcategories

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22776/F387366AN19E05.htm (See custom)

 

Question: 3

 

A compensation administrator has set up a Workforce Compensation Plan with Budget Pools. Manager Level Budgeting is enabled for the pool and default budget values have been configured for the following columns on the Configure Budget Page Layout page:

Budget Distribution Amount or Budget Distribution Percentage columns on the Detail Table tab

Budget Amount or Budget Percentage columns on the Summary Columns tab

To distribute the budgets automatically, the compensation administrator should run __________. (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. the Start Compensation Cycle process
2. the Validate Plan Setup process
3. the Refresh Data process
4. the Start Compensation Cycle process. After this, the Administrator should create a model to distribute the budgets.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

Which three statements are true about individual compensation plans? (Choose three.)

 

1. A user’s ability to access or make updates to awards in individual compensation plans may be restricted by the user’s association to a Legislative Data Group.
2. Individual compensation plans are not necessary for payment of items such as spot bonus.
3. Individual compensation plans are necessary for payment of items such as spot bonus.
4. Workers are individual compensation plans to manage their own contributions to charitable or savings plans.
5. Individual compensation plans define compensation that managers can award to individual workers outside of the regular compensation cycle, such as spot bonus or education reimbursement.

 

Answer: C, D, E   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37017_01/fusionapps.1115/e20376/F668086AN4EC23.htm (individual compensation plans: explained)

 

Question: 5

 

A corporation has implemented Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation. As a Fusion consultant, you are required to set up Calculation Factors for the deduction elements setup.

Which two statements are correct regarding the Calculation Factors? (Choose two.)

 

1. Calculation Factors indicate which deduction range to use when calculating the deduction amount.
2. The Manage Deduction Ranges task in the Payroll Calculation work area is used to view the calculation factors defined.
3. Calculation Factors define which classifications of earnings to consider when calculating the basis for the deduction element.
4. The Manage Deduction Group Rates task in the Payroll Calculation work area is used to view the calculation factors defined.

 

Answer: A, B   

 

Question: 6

 

An organization uses Compensation Statement for its workers in the UK. One of the categories used in the statement has the display name as One-Time Bonus. As an implementation consultant, you are in the process of configuring a new Compensation Statement for workers in Indi

1. You decide to reuse the category for the new Compensation Statement. In the process of configuring the Statement Definition, you update the Compensation Category display name to Annual Bonus. However, when the Compensation Statement for workers in the UK displays, it continues to show the Category display name as One-Time Bonus.

What is the cause for this? (Choose the best answer.)

1. The Compensation Category display name is specific to a Statement Definition.
2. The Compensation Statement Definition synchronization process needs to be run to update the Compensation Category display name in all statement definitions.
3. After the Compensation Statement is generated for workers in India, the Category display name of Annual Bonus will start reflecting in the Compensation Statement of workers in the UK.
4. Workers in the UK need to refresh their statements in order to see the updated display name.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

Identify the list builder that is used in the delivered variable allocation task that appears to all allocations. (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Position Hierarchy
2. Dynamic Approval Group
3. Static Approval Group
4. Supervisory Hierarchy
5. Auto Approval

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 8

 

Which four statements are true if you enable Performance Ratings and integrate with Oracle Fusion Performance Management? (Choose four.)

 

1. You can display overall and calculated performance ratings given in the Performance Management system and provide access to the full performance document from within the worksheet.
2. You select the performance template or document name and the period to make available, and whether to display only completed ratings or ratings in any status.
3. You have the option to update the overall performance rating, overall goal rating, and overall competency rating in the compensation worksheet.
4. You need to refresh the HR data for ratings updated in Performance Management so they are updated in the worksheet.
5. You can also display the Performance Rating History column in the worksheet to see historical ratings given in the Performance Management system.

 

Answer: A, B, C, D   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37583_01/doc.1116/e22776/F387136AN11E5B.htm (Display performance management ratings)

 

Question: 9

 

A corporation has set up an individual compensation plan for a contribution towards a retirement benefit. This contribution must be approved by the four-level manager hierarchy.

Identify all the four builders that support a restriction for the number of levels. (Choose four.)

 

1. Management Chain
2. Supervisory
3. Position
4. Job Level
5. Resource
6. Department Level

 

Answer: B, D, E, F   

 

Question: 10

 

A corporation has implemented Oracle Fusion Compensation for a manufacturing client. The Fusion consultant created a Bonus element with primary classification as Supplemental earning.

What is true about the subclassifications for the created element? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Sub-classifications provide a way to feed elements.
2. Once a sub-classification is associated with a classification, it cannot be associated with another classification.
3. A sub-classification name cannot be reused under a different primary classification.
4. Elements can have only one sub-classification.

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

Subclassifications provide a way to feed balances. Elements can have only one primary and secondary classification, but multiple subclassifications. You can create subclassifications or use predefined ones. Once a subclassification is associated with a classification it cannot be associated with another classification. A subclassification name can be reused under different primary classifications, but you will have to create separate balance feeds for each subclassification with the same name.

 

Question: 11

 

Your customer wants line managers to be able to access the active workforce compensation plan during the first three months of the Plan period, but not to update it. The evaluation period start and end dates for the plan are January 1 to December 31 of the year.

How should you set this up? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Worksheet update period start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
2. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to March 31 of the year and Plan access start and end dates from April 1 to December 31 of the year.
3. Configure Plan access start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.
4. Configure Worksheet update period start and end dates from January 1 to December 31 of the year.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

A corporation is implementing Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation and needs to give a spot bonus for a new hire as well as give the same for special recognition for employees.

Identify the correct option that will enable the organization to achieve the desired results. (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Configure the spot bonus as an individual compensation plan and add “Hire” as an action. Then, after an employee is hired, this plan can be added to employees anytime.
2. Configure the spot bonus as an individual compensation plan and add “Hire” as an action so that for HR action “Hire”, this bonus can be added. Also add “Manage Individual Compensation,” which will enable Managers to add it to reportees.
3. Configure the spot bonus as an individual compensation plan and add “Hire” as an action so that for HR action “Hire,” this bonus can be added. Also add “Manage Contributions,” which will enable managers to add it to reportees.
4. Configure the spot bonus as an individual compensation plan and add “All” as an action so that this plan can be added to anyone at any time.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 13

 

Which statement is correct about secondary element classifications? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. They are user-defined and can be edited.
2. They are user-defined and cannot be edited.
3. They are predefined and can be edited.
4. They are predefined and cannot be edited.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 14

 

During the compensation review cycle, which two actions occur when a manager is allocated a zero or null budget? (Choose two.)

 

1. The manager can manually allocate some budget for his team.
2. The manager does not have access to the plan.
3. The manager will have read-only access.
4. The available budget becomes negative when the manager makes allocations.

 

Answer: A, C   

 

Explanation:

You can distribute initial budgets for one or more managers in the hierarchy. When the budget is zero or null, managers have read-only access to their budgets. A null budget contains no value. A zero budget means no amount is budgeted.

 

Question: 15

 

A corporation is implementing Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation and the new salary basis is being created.

For an hourly paid employee, which option is true regarding the Annualization factor in the salary basis? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. For all hourly paid employees, a new salary basis needs to be created and associated that uses a frequency of “Hourly,” and the Annualization factor will be the number of hours in a work year.
2. Whether the employee is paid hourly or not, the Annualization factor is the multiplication factor used to convert base pay at the selected frequency to an annualized amount. So any frequency can be used and the corresponding Annualization factor can be determined.
3. The Annualization factor used in salary basis is only for display purpose. The amount that is paid to the worker is always determined by the pay period on the payroll linked to worker’s assignment.
4. The Annualization factor used in a salary basis is only for display purpose. The amount that is paid to the worker is always determined by the sum of all the components of the salary basis multiplied by 12.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 16

 

You client has a requirement that allows a salary adjustment based on the number of dependents the employee has, and this allowance must be mapped to a separate component. Because this allowance cannot have a logical mapping with any of the predefined components, you decide to create a new salary component called “Family Allowance”.

Which option would you use to achieve this? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. The Configure Compensation Component task in Manage plans
2. The Salary Component Lookup
3. It is not possible to achieve this, because only the delivered salary components can be used.
4. The Compensation Models

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Reference:

https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E60665_01/common/FAIWC/F1477720AN1CD0E.htm#F1477720AN1CD0E

 

Question: 17

 

A corporation implemented Fusion Compensation and must run a compensation cycle. The corporation has seven different active components in the salary basis. Salaries of all the employees must be updated in bulk mode.

Which statement is true about the bulk update using Integrated Workbook? (Choose the best answer.)

 

1. Integrated Workbook can be used to update all the seven components.
2. Only the first four active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.
3. Only the first five active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.
4. Only the first six active components will be loaded at a time by Integrated Workbook.

 

Answer: C   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  178

Test Number: 1Z0-330

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name: Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation Cloud Service 2016 Certified Implementation Specialist

Test Name:   Oracle Fusion Workforce Compensation Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1Z0-330/

Instant Success 1Z0-325 Exam with Valid 1Z0-325 Questions Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

You are working with a client to set up a new chat channel for their agents. Which four features would you configure in the chat workspace options? (Choose four.)

 

1. Wrap Up Time.
2. Prompt the agent to enter wrap up mode.
3. Set Absent Interval for how long to wait without a response.
4. Set the queue wait time interval.
5. Create/associate related incident at the beginning of chat.
6. Set Status to Solved for incidents created automatically.
7. Set the Warning time for when to notify an agent when a response is received.

 

Answer: A,B,E,F   

 

 Question: 2

 

Your customer wants to set CI_HOURS to 720 but they don't want to notify customers when the incident status automatically changes.

Which Contact Email Message should be turned off?

 

1. Incident Solved
2. Incident Waiting
3. Incident Closed
4. Incident Unresolved
5. Question Receipt
6. Rule Email

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Your customer would like to automatically create incidents for any comments created on Social Media sites.

Which two Social Media options are available to create incidents in Oracle Service Cloud? (Choose two.)

 

1. Google Plus Comments
2. Instagram Comments
3. Facebook Public Personal Page Comments
4. Twitter Public Comments
5. YouTube Comments
6. Twitter Private Messages
7. Facebook Fan Page Comments

 

Answer: C,D   

 

 Question: 4

 

Your customer wants agents to respond to specific product questions in a uniform manner.

They interact with their customers through the customer portal, chat, and email. Some of the responses can be automated, so you set these responses as standard text.

Which three standard text types can you use? (Choose three.)

 

1. Category Text
2. Chat URL
3. Incident Text
4. Chat Text
5. Product Text
6. Answer Text
7. Rule Text
8. End User Text

 

Answer: A,E,G   

 

Question: 5

 

Your customer would like to run incident reports with up to five years of data on incidents and activity for a given agent regardless of whether an agent has left the company.

Your customer reuses licenses after staff members leave the company and will need to continue that practice.

Your customer is not sure what they need to do to keep from deleting data for agents that have left the company.

Identify which option would allow your customer to administer the staff accounts to enable the reporting abilities they require.

 

1. Disabled from Assignment
2. Disabled from Assignment and Report Filters
3. Permanently Disabled
4. Do not disable, but lock the staff account.
5. Reassign the old incidents to another staff account called Former Employee.

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 6

 

Your customer has а single Service Level Agreement and applies the Service Level Agreement called Reseller when a contact is a reseller of their services.

These end customers often have their own ticketing system, and in order to capture the reseller's ticket number, the customer has requested that their Ask page be updated to include an External Ticket Number custom field only when the logged in contact has a Service Level Agreement that only a reseller would have.

Which two widgets or tags are used to complete your customer's request? (Choose two.)

 

1. Use the “FormInput” widget.
2. Use the “Conditional” tag with an “sla” attribute.
3. Use the “FormInputCustom” widget.
4. Use the “FormSubmit” widget.
5. Use the “Field” tag with the “name” attribute.

 

Answer: B,E   

 

Question: 7

 

A customer wants to change the following text on the receipt and ask submit page:

“Thanks for submitting your question. Use this reference number for follow up:#120728-000001

A member of our support team will get back to you soon.

If you need to update your question and you already have an account, log in, click the Your Account tab, and select the question to open and update it.”

Which two actions will allow you to identify the correct message base item if you did not know which message base you need to edit? (Choose two.)

 

1. Submit an incident to customer care.
2. Look for the message in the receipt email body.
3. Identify the customer portal page that includes the text you want to change and identify the message base from within the code.
4. Run a message base report and search for the text string you want to change.

 

Answer: B,C   

 

Question: 8

 

You have set up a business rule auto response with standard text to send an email to customers when they select specific categories while asking a question on the customer portal page.

When you activate the new business rule, your standard text for the email starts showing up with the Smart Assistant responses on the customer portal when a customer is submitting a question.

How do you resolve this?

 

1. Update the business rule that sends the auto response to “If Incidents.category not equal Smart Assistant.”
2. Change the business rule that creates the Smart Assistant Response to “If Incident.Source equals Ask a Question.”
3. Change the business rule that creates the auto response to “If Incident.Source equals Ask a Question.”
4. Change the business rule that creates the auto response to “If incident.source equals Ask a Question or Incident.Source equals Smart Assistant on Ask a Question.”
5. Change the business rule that creates the Smart Assistant Response to “If Incident.Source equals Smart Assistant on Ask a Question.”

 

Answer: A   

Test Information:

Total Questions:  80

Test Number: 1Z0-325

Vendor Name: Oracle                   

Cert Name: Oracle Cloud

Test Name:   Oracle RightNow Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/1z0-325/        

Why Should You Purchase Cisco 400-101 Exam product 2018

Question: 1

 

trace 1 interface Serial 1/0/1 ip routing

trace 2 ...

trace 3...

int g0.0

...

glbp 29 weighting track 1

glbp 29 weighting track 2 decrement 30

glbp 29 weighting track 3 decrement 5

...

Refer to the exhibit. after you configured R1 as an AVF in GLBP group 29 as shown, IP routing was lost on

interface Serial 1/0/1, Serial 1/0/2 and GigabiEthernet0/2, causing R1 to lose its AVF minimum action you must

take so that R1 can regainits AVF status?

 

1. Restore IP routing on Serial 1/0/2 only
2. Restore IP routing on both GigabitEthernet 0/2 and Serial 1/0/2
3. Restore IP routing on Serial 1/0/1 only
4. Restore IP routing on GigabitEthernet 0/2 only
5. Restore IP routing on both GigabitEthernet 0/2 and Serial 1/0/1
6. Restore IP routing on both Serial 1/0/1 and Serial 1/0/2

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 2

 

username cisco1 password cisco 1

username cisco2...

username cisco3...

username cisco4 privilege 15 password cisco4

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local

aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+ local

ip http server

ip http authentication aaa

...

Refer to the exhibit. if the TACACS+ server is unreachable, which user will be able to use HTTP to configure the router?

 

1. cisco1
2. cisco2
3. cisco3
4. cisco4

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 3

 

how does control plane policing protect the route processor?

 

1. It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQC
2. It disables access to the control plane during an attack
3. It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces
4. It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 4

 

On a network with multiple VLANs, which three tasks must you perform to configure IP source guard on

VLAN 50 only?(choose three)

 

1. Configure the ip dhcp snooping vlan 50 command on the interface
2. Configure the ip dhcp snooping vlan 50 command globally
3. Configure the ip dhcp snooping command on the interface
4. Configure the ip verify source command globally
5. Configure the ip dhcp snooping command global
6. Configure the ip verify source command on the interface

 

Answer: BEF   

 

Question: 5

 

Which command sequence must you enter to configure SSH access to a Cisco router?

 

1. A.ip ssh version ip domain-name crypto key zeroize
2. B.hostname ip domain-lookup crypto key generate rsa
3. C.hostname ip domain-name crypto key zeroize
4. D.ip ssh version ip domain-name crypto key generate rsa
5. E.ip shs version ip domain-lookup crypto key zeroize
6. F.hostname ip domain-name crypto key generate rsa

 

Answer: F

 

 

Question:6

 

Which two statements about the output are true?(Choose two)

 

1. BFD last failed 476ms ago on interface GigabitEthernet 0/3.
2. BGP on RT1 has negotiated the BFD capability with its peer.
3. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using ICMP.
4. BFD is active on interface GigabitEthernet0/3 and is using UDP.
5. BFD is active for BGP on RT1

 

Answer: BE   

 

Question: 7

 

Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited WAN Ethernet service ？

 

1. IntServ with RSVP
2. DiffServ
3. Q-in-Q
4. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command
5. HCBWFQ

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 8

 

Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?

 

1. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.
2. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.
3. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.
4. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.
5. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined

condition is met.

 

Answer: E   

 

Question: 9

 

Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the interval is set?

 

1. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slowdown its LSA packet updates.
2. The LSA is added to the OSPF database.
3. The LSA is ignored.
4. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet Updates.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 10

 

Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use？

 

1. GRE
2. MPLS
3. LISP
4. IP-in-IP

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 11

 

Which traffic gets set to AF41 by the marking policy on interface

GigabitEthernet0/0？

 

1. Only traffic matching access-list streaming
2. No traffic gets set to AF41
3. Any traffic matching access-list tp-rooms and access-list streaming
4. Only traffic matching access-list tp-rooms

 

Answer: C   

 

 

Question: 12

 

What are two effects of the given configuration？（Choose two）

 

1. Track objiect 100 goes down if Ethernet1/0 goes down.
2. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 30.
3. Track object 100 goes down if Ethernet1/2 goes down.
4. The aggregate weight of track object 100 is set to 40.
5. Track object 100 stays up as long as both Ethernet1/0 and Ethernet1/1 are up.
6. Track object 100 goes down if all three interfaces go down.

 

Answer:  EF   

 

Question: 13

 

Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?

 

1. Space-dese mode
2. Bidirectional mode
3. Deuce mode
4. Sparse mode

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 14

 

  Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?

 

1. Selective acknowledge
2. Flow control
3. Fast recovery
4. Sliding window

 

Answer:  A   

 

Question: 15

 

You are configuring Router 1 and Routef2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router 1 and Routei'2 to establish the tuimel? (choose two)

 

1. Router 1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under the pseudowire-class RltoR2.
2. An IP address must be confiaured on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.
3. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
4. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.
5. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 onRouter1.

 

Answer: AC   

 

Question: 16

 

Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?

 

1. Flow control
2. Sliding window
3. Fast recovery
4. Selective acknowedgment

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 17

 

You are configuring Router1 and Router2 for L2TPv3 tunneling. Which two additional configurations are required to enable Router1 and Router2 to establish the tunnel?(choose two)

 

1. Router1 must be configured to encapsulate traffic by using L2TPv3 under thepseudowire-class R1toR2.
2. An IP address must be configured on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.
3. Loopback 0 on Router1 must be advertised to Router2.
4. Cisco Express Fowarding must be disabled on Router1.
5. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be enabled on interface FastEthernet1/0 on Router1.

 

Answer: AC   

 

Question: 18

 

Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP?

 

1. IGP
2. EGP
3. External
4. Incomplete
5. Unknown

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 19

 

When you deploy DMVPN,what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest

address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?

 

1. It is configured on the hub and spoke routers to establish peering.
2. It is configured on the hub to sent the pre-shared key for the spoke routers
3. It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
4. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 20

 

What conclusion can you draw from the given ping output?

 

1. The ping operation sent packets ranging from 505 to 1500 bytes in size.
2. Fragmentation failed during the ping operation.
3. The packet life was exceeded in 5 percent of the operations.
4. The Verbose option was set in the IP header.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 21

 

Which statement is true about trunking?

 

1. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL
2. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUS on nonnative VLANs when using a
3. dot1q trunk.
4. DTP os a point-to-point protocol.
5. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk,management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed

in that VLAN.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 22

 

Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a packet that the packet that the path is sub-optimal?

 

1. ip nhrp record
2. ip nhrp set-unique-bit
3. ip nhrp shortcut
4. ip nhrp redirect
5. ip nhrp cost 65535

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 23

 

Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?

 

1. MLD filtering
2. IGMP snooping
3. MLD snooping
4. IGMP filtering

 

Answer: C   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  737

Test Number: 400-101

Vendor Name: Cisco                      

Cert Name: CCIE

Test Name:   CCIE Routing and Switching Written Exam v5.1

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/400-101/

 

C_TADM51_75 Dumps with Real C_TADM51_75 PDF Questions Answers 2018

Question: 1

 

When working with property variants in CCMS monitoring, which of the following statements are

true?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. Property variants can be activated manually.
2. Property variants cannot contain more than 99 performance attributes and their settings.
3. The property variant "SAP_DEFAULT" is the parent variant for property variant "*".
4. For each client, you can choose another property variant as the active variant.

 

Answer: AC   

 

Question: 2

  

If you don't want to enter the username/password interactively, you can enter the

username/password as the first parameter when calling SQLPLUS, for example sqlplus

system/manager.

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

 

1. Incorrect
2. Correct

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 3

 

You have established a Central User Administration (CUA) in AS ABAP. What user related data can be

distributed from the central to the child systems?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. The Information which user master records should exist in which child system
2. Assignment of roles
3. Favorites in SAP Easy Access
4. Definition of roles
5. Initial passwords

 

Answer: ABE   

 

Question: 4

 

The SAP authorization concept is a positive concept because ...

Choose the correct answer(s).

Response:

 

1. Every user automatically receives all authorizations.
2. Authorizations must be explicitly assigned.
3. The range of features of the authorization check is so large.
4. The developers programmed it efficiently.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

 

When maintaining the user distribution field selection (transaction SCUM), you can choose which of

the following options?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. Fixed
2. Local
3. Central
4. Redistribution
5. Global

 

Answer: ACE   

 

Question: 6

 

Which of the following process start sequences can typically be observed when starting an SAP

system based on AS Java 7.0? Note that the specified sequence does not need to be "complete", only

the chronological sequence of the selected processes is considered here.

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

 

1. 1. Database Process(es), 2. Dispatcher, 3. Enqueue Server
2. 1. Enqueue Server, 2. Server Process, 3. Database Process(es)
3. 1. Database Process(es), 2. Message Server, 3. Dispatcher

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 7

 

Which of the following technology components can be used together with an SAP Solution Manager

7.1 system?

Choose the correct answer(s).

Response:

 

1. SAP Internet Transaction Server (SAP ITS), standalone
2. SAP Internet Transaction Server (SAP ITS), integrated
3. Internet Communication Manager (ICM)
4. Web Dynpro ABAP
5. Web Dynpro Java

 

Answer: BCDE   

 

Question: 8

 

How are authorizations assigned to a user?

Choose the correct answer(s).

Response:

 

1. Users are assigned authorizations using profiles.
2. Users are assigned authorizations using roles.
3. Users are assigned authorizations using user names.
4. Users are assigned authorizations using a Certification Authority (CA).

 

Answer: AB   

 

Question: 9

 

You apply SAP support packages to an AS ABAP-based SAP system using the Software Update

Manager (SUM).

What is an advantage of using the main configuration setting 'Single system' instead of using the

settings 'Standard' or 'Advanced'?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

 

1. The downtime is shorter.
2. The overall runtime of the update process is shorter.
3. The shadow instance is installed on the same host as the primary application server (PAS).
4. The ABAP load generation is performed on the shadow repository.

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

You import a transport request using the Transport Management System.

 

When the import finishes, the transport request disappears from the import queue although it

caused a return code 8. What is the most likely reason?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

 

1. The transport strategy is set to ‘queue-controlled single transports’.
2. Quality assurance is set to ‘Delivery after confirmation’.
3. Quality assurance is deactivated.
4. The transport strategy is set to ‘queue-controlled mass transports’.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 11

 

Using SAPDOCCD.ini, you have several options for changing the way online documentation is

accessed. Which of the following statements are true?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the user ID (in the SAP

system) of the user calling help.

1. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the logon language (in the

SAP system) of the user calling help.

1. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the release of the SAP

system from which help is being called.

1. You can change the access path to online documentation, depending on the SID (System ID) of the

SAP system from which help is being called.

 

Answer: BCD   

 

Question: 12

 

You would like to connect two SAP systems using RFC. RFC communication should be possible from

each client of the calling system and should connect to three different clients of the target system.

What do you need to consider?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. No work is required in the remote system.
2. In this scenario, you need to define three RFC connections of type "3" within each client of the

calling SAP system.

1. For the scenario described, you will need to define three RFC connections in the calling system.
2. The RFC connection to be defined needs to be of type "M", because multiple clients should be

addressable in the target system.

 

Answer: AD   

 

Question: 13

 

You have installed an AS Java based SAP system. Which tool makes technical settings which are

required for the technical processing of a system or a technical scenario?

Choose the correct answer(s).

Response:

 

1. Template Wizard
2. Configuration Wizard
3. Postinstaller
4. Configuration Template Installer

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 14

 

Which statements are correct for Instance?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. Using Oracle Real Application Clusters (RAC), one database is served by two or more instances.
2. The combination of Oracle (background) processes and memory buffers is called an Oracle

instance.

1. Every running Oracle database is associated with an Oracle instance.
2. Every Oracle database needs shared instance.

 

Answer: AC   

 

Question: 15

 

While setting up the RFC connections for a Central User Administration (CUA) in an AS ABAP-based

SAP system, you are required to observe which of the following naming conventions?

(There are 2 correct answers to this question)

Response:

 

1. The required RFC connections have to be named identically to the logical system they are

connecting to.

1. The required RFC connections have to be named in capital letters.
2. The users that are used for the RFC connections for the CUA need to be of type "SYSTEM" with

authorization SAP_ALL.

1. The naming convention recommended by SAP for both RFC connections and logical system names,

is the following: "CUA_", for example, CUA_DEV.

1. You need to use trusted RFC connections for setting up a CUA environment.

 

Answer: AB   

 

Question: 16

 

What information is provided by the database system check "brconnect -f check"?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. Space-critical objects
2. Hit ratio of the buffer cache
3. Tablespace fragmentation
4. Size of all tables and indexes

 

Answer: AC   

 

Question: 17

 

Which process sequence describes the import steps of ABAP transport requests?

(Choose correct answer)

Response:

 

1. ABAP Dictionary import –> ABAP Dictionary activation –> Main import –> Generation of ABAP

programs and screens

1. Main import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> ABAP Dictionary activation –>

Generation of ABAP programs and screens

1. Main import –> Generation of ABAP programs and screens –> ABAP Dictionary

import–> ABAP Dictionary activation

1. ABAP Dictionary import –> Execution of user-defined activities (XPRAs) –> Main

import–> ABAP Dictionary activation

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 18

 

During the startup of the central instance of an SAP system based on AS ABAP+Java 7.0x (dual stack),

different processes are started. Which processes are started by the ABAP Dispatcher by default?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

 

1. AS ABAP Message Server
2. AS ABAP Work Processes
3. AS Java Message Server
4. Internet Communication Manager (ICM) if parameter rdisp/start_icman is set to

"true"

1. JControl

 

Answer: BDE   

 

Question: 19

 

During an online database backup, which files must be saved to ensure that the Oracle database can

be restored to an internally consistent state?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

 

1. The tablespace data files, the database control file, and the database parameter file
2. Oracle online redo log files and the database control file
3. The Oracle executables, the database parameter file, and the tablespace data files
4. Tablespace data files, the database control file and all database redo logs written during the online

backup

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 20

 

Which of the following is true when creating new clients within an SAP System based on AS ABAP

(for example, SAP ECC)?

 

1. Log files indicating the success of a new client creation are stored in the home directory of the

user initiating the copy.

1. Customizing and repository objects from a source client are automatically copied to the new client

using the client copy tool.

1. The client transport tool can be used to transfer the same source client, simultaneously, from one

SAP System to multiple other SAP systems in a single action.

1. The client copy can be accelerated by using several dialog work processes in parallel.
2. Remote client copies generate large data files at the operating system level.

 

Answer: D   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  200

Test Number: C_TADM51_75

Vendor Name: SAP                        

Cert Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate

Test Name:   SAP Certified Technology Associate – System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.5

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/c_tadm51_75/              

Latest 70-742 Dumps - Real Exam 70-742 Questions 2018

Question: 1

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in fabrikam.com, you configure contoso.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso needs to trust Fabrikam.

 

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted user domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso would need to be the Trusted User Domain.

 

Question: 4

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 5

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 6

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema (not just domain schema).

 

Question: 7

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From a domain controller, you run the Set-AdComputer cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 8

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Local Users and Groups preference.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Account Policies settings.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1.

You recently restored a backup of the Active Directory database from Server1 to an alternate Location.

The restore operation does not interrupt the Active Directory services on Server1.

You need to make the Active Directory data in the backup accessible by using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP).

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: E   

 

Question: 11

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

You need to limit the number of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) objects that a user can create in the domain.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.

You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: C   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  150

Test Number: 70-742

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name: MCSA

Test Name:   Identity with Windows Server 2016

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-742/

156-315.77 Dumps for Guaranteed Success in 156-315.77

Question: 1

 

In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?

 

1. sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP.
2. sglondon_2 because sglondon_1 has highest IP.
3. sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot.
4. sglondon_2 because it has highest priority.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 2

 

You find that Gateway fw2 can NOT be added to the cluster object.

 

What are possible reasons for that?

1)  fw2 is a member in a VPN community.

2)  ClusterXL software blade is not enabled on fw2.

3)  fw2 is a DAIP Gateway.

 

1. 2 or 3
2. 1 or 2
3. 1 or 3
4. All

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 3

 

For which rules will the connection templates be generated in SecureXL?

 

1. Rules 2 and 5
2. Rules 2 through 5
3. Rule 2 only
4. All rules except Rule 3

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 4

 

You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window. What must you enable to see the Directional Match?

 

1. directional_match (true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server
2. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object’s VPN tab
3. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties
4. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 5

 

MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?

 

1. Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.
2. Use already installed Migration Tool.
3. Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO
4. Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint website

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 6

 

MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the administrator do first?

 

1. Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.
2. Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.
3. Upgrade every unit directly to R77.
4. Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

 

Answer: D    

 

Question: 7

 

MicroCorp experienced a security appliance failure. (LEDs of all NICs are off.) The age of the unit required that the RMA-unit be a different model. Will a revert to an existing snapshot bring the new unit up and running?

 

1. There is no dynamic update at reboot.
2. No. The revert will most probably not match to hard disk.
3. Yes. Everything is dynamically updated at reboot.
4. No. At installation the necessary hardware support is selected. The snapshot saves this state.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 8

 

Which is the lowest Gateway version manageable by SmartCenter R77?

 

1. R65
2. S71
3. R55
4. R60A

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Can you implement a complete R77 IPv6 deployment without IPv4 addresses?

 

1. No. SmartCenter cannot be accessed from everywhere on the Internet.
2. Yes. Only one TCP stack (IPv6 or IPv4) can be used at the same time.
3. Yes, There is no requirement for managing IPv4 addresses.
4. No. IPv4 addresses are required for management.

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 10

 

A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.

 

1. There is no limit.
2. 16
3. 6
4. 2

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 11

 

Select the command set best used to verify proper failover function of a new ClusterXL configuration.

 

1. reboot
2. cphaprob -d failDevice -s problem -t 0 register / cphaprob -d failDevice unregister
3. clusterXL_admin down / clusterXL_admin up
4. cpstop/cpstart

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 12

 

You are troubleshooting a HTTP connection problem. You've started fw monitor -o http.pcap. When you open http.pcap with Wireshark there is only one line. What is the most likely reason?

 

1. fw monitor was restricted to the wrong interface.
2. Like SmartView Tracker only the first packet of a connection will be captured by fw monitor.
3. By default only SYN pakets are captured.
4. Acceleration was turned on and therefore fw monitor sees only SYN.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 13

 

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

 

1. pdp and lad
2. pdp and pdp-11
3. pep and lad
4. pdp and pep

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 14

 

Which three of the following are ClusterXL member requirements?

  1)  same operating systems

  2)  same Check Point version

  3)  same appliance model

  4)  same policy

 

1. 1, 3, and 4
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 2, 3, and 4
4. 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 15

 

Fill in the blank. You can set Acceleration to ON or OFF using command syntax ___________ .

Answer: fwaccel off/on

Question: 16

You run cphaprob -a if. When you review the output, you find the word DOWN. What does DOWN mean?

 

1. The cluster link is down.
2. The physical interface is administratively set to DOWN.
3. The physical interface is down.
4. CCP pakets couldn't be sent to or didn't arrive from neighbor member.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 17

 

Which three of the following components are required to get a SmartEvent up and running?

  1)  SmartEvent SIC

  2)  SmartEvent Correlation Unit

  3)  SmartEvent Server

  4)  SmartEvent Analyzer

  5)  SmartEvent Client

 

1. 2, 3, and 5
2. 1, 2, and 4
3. 1, 2, and 3
4. 3, 4, and 5

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 18

 

MegaCorp is using SmartCenter Server with several gateways. Their requirements result in a heavy log load. Would it be feasible to add the SmartEvent Correlation Unit and SmartEvent Server to their SmartCenter Server?

 

1. No. SmartCenter SIC will interfere with the function of SmartEvent.
2. No. If SmartCenter is already under stress, the use of a separate server for SmartEvent is recommended.
3. No, SmartEvent and Smartcenter cannot be installed on the same machine at the same time.
4. Yes. SmartEvent must be installed on your SmartCenter Server.

 

Answer: B   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  344

Test Number: 156-315.77

Vendor Name: CheckPoint                       

Cert Name: CCSA

Test Name:   Check Point Certified Security Expert

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/156-315.77/

Features of CertsWarrior Microsoft 70-740 Exam Dumps 2018

Question: 1

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in fabrikam.com, you configure contoso.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso needs to trust Fabrikam.

 

Question: 2

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted publisher domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 3

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) deployment.

Your company establishes a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc. The network of Fabrikam contains an Active Directory forest named fabrikam.com and an AD RMS deployment.

You need to ensure that the users in contoso.com can access rights protected documents sent by the users in fabrikam.com.

Solution: From AD RMS in contoso.com, you configure fabrikam.com as a trusted user domain.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Contoso would need to be the Trusted User Domain.

 

Question: 4

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 5

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You upgrade a domain controller to Windows Server 2016.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

 

Question: 6

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.

Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode

Windows2008R2Forest

PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode

Windows2008R2Domain

PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.

You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.

Solution: You raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema (not just domain schema).

 

Question: 7

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From a domain controller, you run the Set-AdComputer cmdlet.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 8

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Local Users and Groups preference.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 9

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.

You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.

You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.

Solution: From the Computer Configuration node of GPO1, you configure the Account Policies settings.

Does this meet the goal?

 

1. Yes
2. No

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 10

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named Server1.

You recently restored a backup of the Active Directory database from Server1 to an alternate Location.

The restore operation does not interrupt the Active Directory services on Server1.

You need to make the Active Directory data in the backup accessible by using Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP).

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: E   

 

Question: 11

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.

You need to limit the number of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) objects that a user can create in the domain.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 12

 

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.

You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly.

Which tool should you use?

 

1. Dsadd quota
2. Dsmod
3. Active Directory Administrative Center
4. Dsacls
5. Dsamain
6. Active Directory Users and Computers
7. Ntdsutil
8. Group Policy Management Console

 

Answer: C   

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  198

Test Number: 70-740

Vendor Name: Microsoft                            

Cert Name: MCSA

Test Name:   Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/70-740/            

Latest HPE6-A44 Dumps - Real Exam HPE6-A44 Questions 2018

Question: 1

 

An administrator adds local administrative accounts to manage the Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). Which role should be assigned to an administrator who needs to only generate reports and monitor WLANS and ports?

 

1. Location-api-management
2. Network-operations
3. Root
4. AP-provisioning

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 2

 

Refer to the exhibit.

Last synchronization time: Thu Apr 13 07:42:48 2017

To Master Switch at 10.254.10.101: succeeded

WMS Database backup file size: 39121 bytes

Local User Database backup file size: 29694 bytes

Global AP Database backup file size: 13375 bytes

IAP Database backup file size: 3750 bytes

Airgroup Database backup file size: 3052 bytes

License Database backup file size: 5358 bytes

CPSec Database backup file size: 3224 bytes

Bocmgr Database backup file size: 6016 bytes

Synchronization took 1 second

1 synchronization attempted

0 synchronization have failed

Periodic synchronization is enabled and runs every 60 minutes

Synchronization doesn’t include Captive Portal Custom data

Airmatch database gets synchronized periodically. Last synchronization time:

2017-04-13 07:22:2019:20:24

What can be determined from the command output shown in the exhibit?

 

1. The synchronized data is protected by VRRP.
2. The command was executed on the standby Mobility Master (MM).
3. The synchronization period is at its default value.
4. The other Mobility Master (MM) is the active license server.

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 3

 

An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office shown in the exhibit. The company has one Mobility Controller (MC) at the Primary DMZ site and one at the Secondary DMZ site. The RAP is configured to connect to only the MC at the Primary DMZ site. A network outage with the ISP at the Primary DMX site causes the RAP to reboot. Upon reboot, the RAP cannot build a tunnel to the Secondary DMZ site MC because the administrator forgot to add the Second LMS IP address to the AP Group configuration. Once the RAP can successfully connect, the administrator can add the Secondary DMZ MC as a backup LMS to fix the AP Group.

What should the administrator implement to allow the RAP to connect to the MC at the Secondary DMZ site while the outage at the primary site persists?

 

1. Dynamic discovery through DHCP Option 43
2. Static configuration from apboot mode
3. Dynamic discovery through DHCP Option 60
4. Dynamic discovery through multicast ADP

 

Answer: A   

 

Question: 4

 

An administrator supports a cluster of four Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs) with management addresses of 10.1.100.101, 10.1.100.102, 10.1.100.103, and 10.1.202.181. The administrator accesses an AP associated with this cluster, reboots it and accesses apboot mode. The administrator executes the printenv command. Which AP parameter contains the IP addresses of the cluster members that the AP should use to connect to the cluster?

 

1. Noodelist
2. Servername
3. Master_ip
4. Cfg_lms

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 5

 

A VIA client tries to initially connect to corporate office controller through an intermediate firewall. However, the VPN connection fails. The administrator examines the firewall rules and determines that rules for UDP 4500 and UDP 500 are configured.

Which additional protocol must be allowed in the firewall rules to resolve this connection failure?

 

1. TCP 22
2. TCP 443
3. UDP 8200
4. ESP

 

Answer: D   

 

Question: 6

 

An administrator has a cluster of Aruba Mobility Controllers (MCs). The administrator wants to manually reboot one of the controllers.

Before rebooting, which command should the administrator use to move the APs?

 

1. apmove
2. lc-cluster move ap
3. active-ap-rebalance
4. active-ap-lb

 

Answer: B   

 

Question: 7

 

Which Aruba Unified Communications and Collaboration (UCC) deployment mode should be used when UCC is disabled on the Mobility Controllers (MCs)?

 

1. Heuristics mode
2. WMM mode
3. ALG mode
4. SDN-API mode

 

Answer: B   

Test Information:

Total Questions:  67

Test Number: HPE6-A44

Vendor Name: HP                          

Cert Name: HPE Aruba Certified

Test Name:   Scalable WLAN Design and Implementation (SWDI) 8

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/HPE6-A44/    

E20-585 Dumps with Real E20-585 PDF Questions Answers 2018

Question: 1

 

Which protocol is used with Dell EMC Data Domain Cloud Tier to transfer data between a Data Domain system and the cloud?

 

1. HTTP
2. SFTP
3. NFS
4. FTP

 

Answer: C   

 

Question: 2

 

An administrator is looking for a way to change each company department for storage utilization on their Dell EMC Data Domain systems. How can this be implemented in Data Domain?

 

1. Create an MTree for each department with soft and hard quotas.
2. Create a restricted data zone for each department.
3. Configure an administrative file system for each department.
4. Add a controller for each department to each Data Domain system.

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

The Cloud Unit may be used by multiple MTrees. Individual data movement policies are set for each MTree moving data to the Cloud Unit.

References:

ECS And Data Domain Cloud Tier Architecture Guide

 

Question: 3

 

When implementing Extended Retention on a Dell EMC Data Domain system, which license is required?

 

1. Replication
2. Shelf Capacity
3. Retention Lock Compliance
4. Retention Lock Governance

 

Answer: B   

 

Explanation:

EMC Data Domain Extended Retention is a licensed software option installed on a supported EMC Data Domain controller, and a shelf capacitylicense for each storage shelf.

The appropriate shelf capacity license is required for any new shelf that you add. The license is specific to either an active or archive tier shelf. An Expanded-Storage license is required to expand the Active Tier Storageabove the following capacity, depending on the controller model:

You cannot use additional storage without first applying the appropriate licenses.

References:

Data Domain Extended Retention Administration Guide DD OS 5.2, page 14

 

Question: 4

 

Which Dell EMC Data Domain model supports Data Domain Extended Retention software?

 

1. DD860
2. DD2200
3. DD2500
4. DD6300

 

Answer: A   

 

Explanation:

EMCData Domain Extended Retention is a licensed software option installed on a supported EMC Data Domain controller, and a shelf capacity license for each storage shelf.

The appropriate shelf capacity license is required for any new shelf that you add. The license is specific to either an active or archive tier shelf. An Expanded-Storage license is required to expand the Active Tier Storage above the following capacity, depending on the controller model:

You cannot use additional storage without first applying the appropriate licenses.

Which Dell EMC Data Domain model supports Data Domain Extended Retention software?

 

Question: 5

 

A delivery specialist wants to integrate a Dell EMC Data Domain system into an existing backup environment using NAS. What are the supported protocols?

 

1. CIFS and NFS only
2. CIFS, NFS, and DD Boost only
3. CIFS, NFS, and VTL only
4. CIFS, NFS, DD Boost, and VTL

 

Answer: D   

 

Explanation:

References:

https://www.emc.com/collateral/software/white-papers/h7082-data-domain-replicator-wp.pdf

 

Test Information:

Total Questions:  66

Test Number: E20-585

Vendor Name: EMC       

Cert Name: Dell EMC Certified Specialist

Test Name:   Specialist - Systems Administrator, Data Domain Exam

Official Site: https://www.certswarrior.com

For More Details: https://www.certswarrior.com/exam/e20-585/